Q1. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPA when passing:
Correct Answer is:Transition AltitudeExplanation:The pilot of departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa (QNE)Q2. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
Correct Answer is:When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sightExplanation:Q3. What does the abbreviation DER mean?
Correct Answer is:Departure end of runwayExplanation:It refers to the end of the runway where an aircraft departs during takeoff. It is the furthest point on the runway that is usable for takeoff operations. The DER is used as a reference point for calculating departure procedures, obstacle clearance, and performance requirements.Q4. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:
Correct Answer is:1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing massExplanation:Q5. Which of the following defines transition altitude?
Correct Answer is:The altitude at which 1013 hPa is set and vertical position then reported as a flight levelExplanation:Transition altitude can be defined as altitiude at which standrad altimeter setting are changed from QNH to QNE so that every aircraft is flying having same pressure reference and to maintain uniformity and reduces chances of confusion.Q6. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
Correct Answer is:1.5 minExplanation:Q7. Obstacle clearance for the ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centerline more than:
Correct Answer is:Half scale deflection of the localizer indicatorExplanation:Q8. A radial is:
Correct Answer is:A magnetic bearing extending from a VOR stationExplanation:A radial is an imaginary line extending outward from a VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) station. It is defined by its magnetic bearing, measured in degrees clockwise from magnetic north.Q9. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?
Correct Answer is:Approach to landingExplanation:An aircraft has to descend below 1000 ft DH or MDH when it approaches for landing.Q10. What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach?
Correct Answer is:1/2 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approachExplanation:Q11. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Correct Answer is:Initial, intermediate and finalExplanation:Q12. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
Correct Answer is:5 degreeExplanation:Q13. You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable altimeter read?
Correct Answer is:The elevation of the position of the aeroplane plus the height of the altimeter static ventExplanation:Q14. SID terminates at:
Correct Answer is:The first fix of the en-route phaseExplanation:Q15. A circling approach is:
Correct Answer is:A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sightExplanation:Q16. A circling approach is:
Correct Answer is:A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sightExplanation:Q17. The Transition Level:
Correct Answer is:Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitudeExplanation:The transition level is the lowest flight level above the transition altitude at which an aircraft is cleared to fly in standard pressure settings. Essentially, it’s the altitude at which pilots transition from using the local altimeter setting to the standard pressure setting of 1013.25 hPaQ18. In an offset entry into an omni directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 300 offset track is limited to:
Correct Answer is:1.5 minExplanation:Q19. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
Correct Answer is:0 ftExplanation:Q20. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
Correct Answer is:25 NMExplanation:Q21. 55. Maximum permissible bank angle in a holding pattern is________degrees:
Correct Answer is:25Explanation:Q22. On a non-precision approach a so-called “straight-in-approach” is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:
Correct Answer is:30 degrees or lessExplanation:Q23. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centerline within:
Correct Answer is:15 degreeExplanation:Q24. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
Correct Answer is:Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitudeExplanation:In the vicinity of aerodrome vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed as altitude above sea level on or below transition altitude.Q25. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Correct Answer is:Obstacle identification surfaceExplanation:The OIS is used to identify and assess potential obstacles that may interfere with flight paths, particularly during takeoff, approach, and landing. It is a sloped surface that begins at the departure end of the runway and extends outward and upward. The slope ensures that aircraft can safely clear obstacles during critical phases of flight.Q26. A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach…
Correct Answer is:Using bearing, elevation and distance informationExplanation:Q27. In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?
Correct Answer is:The terrain surrounding the airportExplanation:Q28. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within:
Correct Answer is:150 of the alignment of the runway centerlineExplanation:Q29. Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) indications shall be used by pilots in:
Correct Answer is:Both B) and C) are correctExplanation:ACAS indications shall be used by the pilots to avoid the risk of collision, to increase the situational awareness, and also to maintain a visual watch for conflicting traffic but there may be a risk of confusion because pilot may recognise another aircraft as potential risk of colission but the RA/TA may be from anither aircraft. This confusion mostly happens in night.Q30. What are you required to do if you become aware that your transponder has failed?
Correct Answer is:Tell ATCExplanation:In case of transponder failure ATC should be informed.Q31. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
Correct Answer is:At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposesExplanation:When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder at all the times during flight regardless of whether aricraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes so that ATC can keep recieving all the flight related infromation such as Pressure Altitude, FL, Speed and mode emergency.Q32. The factors considered in the calculations of DA/DH are:
Correct Answer is:The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go around, plus a margin for operational factorsExplanation:Q33. If you are flying en route below the transition level but we well briefed with regard to safety altitude, from where would you get altimeter setting information whilst airborne?
Correct Answer is:Ask the FIS controller for local aerodrome QNHsExplanation:Q34. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: 1 the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2 visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3 the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct statement is:
Correct Answer is:1,2,3Explanation:Q35. What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?
Correct Answer is:3 degrees per secondExplanation:Q36. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communication shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
Correct Answer is:7600Explanation:In case of Radio communication failure A 7600Mode C code will be squawk. A 7500 Mode C for Hijack or Unlawful Interference. A 7700 Mode C for distress phase.Q37. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
Correct Answer is:Read back the mode and code to be setExplanation:While acknowledging mode/ code setting of instructions pilots should always Read back and then code needs to be set.Q38. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
Correct Answer is:4000 ftExplanation:The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below 4000 ft.Q39. Which of the following is the location of FL?
Correct Answer is:The atmosphere pressure level of 1013.25 mbExplanation:Q40. What is the meaning of MEHT?
Correct Answer is:Minimum eye heightExplanation:Q41. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
Correct Answer is:7500Explanation:In case of Unlawful interference the pilot in command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to 7500. This squawk code signifies aircraft is under hijack or unlawful interference.Q42. What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight level?
Correct Answer is:For given mag track, the VFR level is the IFR level puts 500’ if below FL290Explanation:Q43. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of:
Correct Answer is:25 NMExplanation:The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA), which is established around a navigation facility, is generally valid within a sector of 25 nautical miles (NM) from that facility.The MSA ensures obstacle clearance for aircraft operating within this sector, typically providing a clearance of at least 1,000 feet above the highest terrain or obstacle. It is primarily used for emergency and situational awareness, rather than as a part of standard enroute navigation.Q44. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
Correct Answer is:At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descentExplanation:The transition from altitude to flight level and vice versa is done at transition level during descent and at transition altitude during climb.Q45. PANS-OPS means:
Correct Answer is:Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operationsExplanation:PANS OPS consists of various set of rules and regulations for efficient aircraft operations during approach and departures in severe waether conditions under IFR Flying.Q46. In relating to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
Correct Answer is:HeadingExplanation:Q47. When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?
Correct Answer is:LeftExplanation:Q48. If the QNH is 991 Mb where is FL? (Assume 1 Mb = 30 ft):
Correct Answer is:Below sea levelExplanation:Q49. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
Correct Answer is:For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of themExplanation:Q50. Which of the following cruising levels would you select under the following conditions: True track 358 degree, variation 3 degree E, deviation 2 degree W?
Correct Answer is:FL 65Explanation:Q51. An expected approach time is given:
Correct Answer is:When an aircraft is instructed to holdExplanation:Q52. Purpose of VSS is to ?
Correct Answer is:Visual Segment Surface Purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach)Explanation:Visual Segment Surface Purpose is to identify obstacles that may affect the execution of an instrument approach procedure (except a circling approach)Q53. Which of the following correctly defines attitude?
Correct Answer is:Vertical position with reference to MSLExplanation:Altitude can be defined as vertical distance of the aircraft with respect to Mean Sea Level. It is denoted by QNH.Q54. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:
Correct Answer is:The terrain surrounding the aerodromeExplanation:Q55. If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken?
Correct Answer is:Initiate a missed approachExplanation:Q56. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
Correct Answer is:Altitude above mean sea level during descentExplanation:Vertical position of aircraft should be expressed asQ57. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:
Correct Answer is:Base turnExplanation:Q58. The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between:
Correct Answer is:3 and 10 NMExplanation:Q59. You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10 nm from the edge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?
Correct Answer is:On clearance to enter the traffic pattern established for a visual join to landExplanation:Q60. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
Correct Answer is:As AltitudeExplanation:Vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be given as altitude. but above the transition level then vertical position of aircraft will be reported as Flight Level.Q61. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
Correct Answer is:Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATCExplanation:When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C eqpt the pilot should continuously operate on this mode unless directed by ATC in cases when the error exceeds+- 300 ft in that case ATC may ask to switch off the transponder.Q62. When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to:
Correct Answer is:MSLExplanation:Q63. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
Correct Answer is:The stateExplanation:Q64. In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
Correct Answer is:To the rightExplanation:Q65. Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?
Correct Answer is:The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodromeExplanation:Q66. In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration?1.Adequate terrain clearance is ensured2. ATC requirements (Danger Areas, restricted airspace etc.) are complied with3. Minimum traffic separation is ensured4. Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensured (differential flight levels applied)5. The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levelsThe level chosen complies with the table of cruising levels
Correct Answer is:1, 2 and 5Explanation:While selecting flight level for a flight maintaining adequate terrain clearance should be ensured, also should maintain ATC requirements over Danger, Restricted and Prohibited airspace. The appropriate flight level should be taken accordingly with the table of flight level using semi circular rule.Q67. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code:
Correct Answer is:A 7600 Mode CExplanation:In case of Radio communication failure A 7600Mode C code will be squawk. A 7500 Mode C for Hijack or Unlawful Interference. A 7700 Mode C for distress phase.Q68. OCH for a precision approach is defined as:
Correct Answer is:The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteriaExplanation:Q69. If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set on your altimeter sub scale?
Correct Answer is:The local QNH obtained from FIS or the nearest aerodromeExplanation:Q70. Which of the following correctly defines height?
Correct Answer is:Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevationExplanation:Height can be defined as vertical distance between the aircraft and a specific point on the ground (Airfield or any specific terrain.)Q71. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called…
Correct Answer is:PANS OPS Doc 8168Explanation:PANS OPS Doc 8168Q72. What are the two main objective of altimeter setting?
Correct Answer is:To provide adequate terrain clearance and vertical separationExplanation:Altimeter setting are done in order to maintain safe vertical distance from other traffic and obstacle clearance above ground level. also to descent and climb with adequate rate.Q73. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area?
Correct Answer is:NilExplanation:Q74. Which of the following correctly defines flight level?
Correct Answer is:Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure levelExplanation:Flight Level can be defined as Vertical position of the Aircraft with reference to Standard pressure level which is 1013.25 hPa. To get a same vertical reference QNE is used so that every aircraft uses same reference datum to know their Flight level.Q75. What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?
Correct Answer is:Reducing from 300 m to 150 mExplanation:Q76. What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?
Correct Answer is:Airborne Collision Avoidance SystemExplanation:ACAS is system advanced fro poilits to prevent air collision, and enhancing situational awareness, and also keeping an eye for conflicting traffic through visual watch.Q77. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after competing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is:
Correct Answer is:Visual manoeuvring (circling)Explanation:Q78. Which of the following is an invalid squawk?
Correct Answer is:A/8765+CExplanation:A/7777+C squawk code is used for Military interception purpose only and A/2000+C is used as default squak code for the time being till ATC provides a new squawk code for the flight.Q79. During a pre-flight a SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is not possible:
Correct Answer is:A flight to the closest airport, where a repair can be made is allowedExplanation:In case of faulty SSR transponder or during pre flight check the transponder is found to be faulty in that case flight can go to nearest airport and the transponder should be repaired before next scheduled flight.Q80. You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you squawk?
Correct Answer is:A/2000+CExplanation:The pilot will squawk A/2000+C because while transitioning from one Fir to another, entering an SSR area without a previously assigned code, squawk 2000 is used to avoid conflicts with other aircraft codes.Q81. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode:
Correct Answer is:Unless otherwise directed by ATCExplanation:When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder at all the times during flight regardless of whether aricraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes so that ATC can keep recieving all the flight related infromation such as Pressure Altitude, FL, Speed and mode emergency. ATC may ask to switch off the Mode C transponder onlyin case of there is faulty reading +- 300 ft.Q82. A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out:
Correct Answer is:At a known elevation on the aerodromeExplanation:A pre flight altimeter check needs to be done before every flight so that we can get reference that our instruments are working fine and altimeter should read 000 at QFE.Q83. On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch), what is the correct procedure for changing squawk?
Correct Answer is:Squawk `standby’, then change the code; then squawk `normal’.Explanation:Q84. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
Correct Answer is:Procedure turnExplanation:Q85. Type B instrument approach operations with DH below 100 feet and RVR below 300 m are classified as
Correct Answer is:CAT IIIExplanation:In CAT III instrument approach operations where the Decision Height is below 100 feet and RVR is below 300 m.Q86. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
Correct Answer is:To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspaceExplanation:Q87. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
Correct Answer is:FAPExplanation:Q88. Standard airway holding pattern below 14000 ft?
Correct Answer is:Right hand turns / 1 minute outboundExplanation:In standard holding pattern all the turns are towards Right Hand Side also the timing fro outbound leg above 14000 ft is 1.5 min and timing for outbound legQ89. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track?
Correct Answer is:120 m (394 ft)Explanation:Q90. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory:
Correct Answer is:Cloud ceiling and RVRExplanation:Q91. What is gradient for departure runway?
Correct Answer is:0.033Explanation:Q92. Your aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference (hi jaking). Without upsetting the man with the gun, what would you squawk?
Correct Answer is:Either A/7700 or A/7500 depending upon the situationExplanation:When an aircraft is under unlawful interference or hijack situation then pilot may squawk code A/7700 or A/7500 accordingly if hijackers are with gun then instead of 7500 pilot may squawk 7700 as it shows Distress situation that requires immmediate assistance.Q93. On receipt of a TA, pilots shall:
Correct Answer is:Not manoeuvre their aircraft in response to traffic advisories (TAs) onlyExplanation:When in flight Traffic Advisory TA comes then pilot should not maneuvere the aircraft because TA is to to alert the pilot that another aircraft is on the same course and there can be potential risk of collision. Only on the Resolution Advisory RA pilot will maneuvere the aircraft accordingly in order to eliminate the incident.Q94. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:
Correct Answer is:ShuttleExplanation:Q95. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
Correct Answer is:Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Communication failure 7600Explanation:Certain squawk code are used for special purpose that are used with conjuction with Secondary Survelliance Radar (SSR) are 7500 fHijack and Unlawful Intereference 7600 for Communication Failure and 7700 for Distress Phase.Q96. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
Correct Answer is:Requested by ATCExplanation:Pilot shall not operate SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless requested by ATC for positive identification.Q97. What is the minimum gradient for missed approach procedure?
Correct Answer is:0.025Explanation:Q98. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:
Correct Answer is:Rate of 30/sec or at a bank angle of 250, which ever requires the lesser bankExplanation:Q99. In the standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to:
Correct Answer is:4550 metreExplanation:In standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to 45550 metre because 1000 ft is equal to 300 metre.Q100. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Correct Answer is:Visual manoeuvring (circling)Explanation:Q101. At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC?
Correct Answer is:In the taxi clearanceExplanation:QNH should be commuicated to pilot in taxi ClearanceQ102. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
Correct Answer is:Landing runwayExplanation: