Q1. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
Correct Answer is:
Descend
Explanation:
In case of interception when intercepting aircraft request to descend for landing the “DESCEND” phrase should be used when communication in commmon language is not possible.
Q2. ADC validity is non schedule domestic flights is:
Correct Answer is:
(-15) to (+3) hours of EOBT in RPL/FPL
Explanation:
ADC Validity for scheduled flights is (-15min) to (+45mins) of EOBT in FPL. ADC Validity for non Scheduled flights is (-15mins) to (+3hrs) of EOBT.
Q3. Above flight level FL 290 (non-RVSM) the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
Correct Answer is:
4000 ft
Explanation:
Above FL 290 in NON-RVSM plane flying in same direction have 4000 ft vertical separation and plane flying in opposite direction will have vertical separation of 2000ft.
Q4. An aircraft that has the right of way shall maintain its:
Correct Answer is:
Heading and speed
Explanation:
Aircraft which has right of way shall maintans its heading and speed.
Q5. A revised estimate shall be notified if the ETA destination passed by aircraft varies by:
Correct Answer is:
2 minutes
Explanation:
Revised estimate should be issued in excess of 2 minutes after ETA has elapsed.
Q6. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft “YOU MAY PROCEED”?
Correct Answer is:
Executing a climb turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft
Explanation:
Rocking wings and flashing navigational lights by Intercepted Aircraft means UNDERSTOOD WILL COMPLY By making a 90 degree turn by intercepting aircraft means you may proceed.
Q7. All flights above________ flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather Conditions
Correct Answer is:
F 150
Explanation:
Weather Conditions are not consistent above FL150 the cloud separation and visibility doesn’t remain within VMC Minima. So in Indian after FL150 only IFR flights are allowed.
Q8. On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
Correct Answer is:
Aircraft taking off or about to take off
Explanation:
Aircraft taxiing on maneuvering area shall give way to landing or departing aircraft in order to avoid any accident.
Q9. If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone?
Correct Answer is:
No
Explanation:
For a SpecialVFR to fly the ground visibility shouldn’t be less than 1500 metre.
Q10. A revised estimate shall be notified if the ETA destination passed by aircraft varies by:
Correct Answer is:
2 minutes
Explanation:
Revised estimate should be issued in excess of 2 minutes after ETA has elapsed.
Q11. When does FLIGHT TIME end?
Correct Answer is:
When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers
Explanation:
Flight Time; it starts when aircrfat moves on its power and ends when aeroplane stops after landing to disembark the passengers. In simple terms from CHOCKS OFF to CHOCKS ON.
Q12. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as “B” above 10000 ft MSL are:
Correct Answer is:
1500metre horizontally, 1000 ft vertically from clouds; 8 km forward visibility
Explanation:
Class B (above 10000ft): 1500 metre horizontal separation, 1000 ft vertical separation from cloud and 8km visibility. Class B (below 10000ft): 1500 metre horizontal separation, 1000 ft vertical separation from cloud and 5 km visibility
Q13. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
Correct Answer is:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed
Explanation:
A double white cross displayed horizontally represents that Gliders flying is in progress and right of way needs to be given to other aircraft.
Q14. Who decides whether to fly under IFR or VFR in VMC?
Correct Answer is:
The PIC
Explanation:
The PIC of aircraft decides whether to fly under IFR or VFR in VMC condition accordingly keeping safety in mind.
Q15. In areas where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000 ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at:
Correct Answer is:
FL 400
Explanation:
According to Semi Circilar Rule: Plane flying in West Bound region having Magnetic Heading 180-359 will be assigned EVEN FL and Magnetic Heading 000-179 is in East region. Hence it’ll be assigned ODD FL.
Q16. Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:
Correct Answer is:
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto too the ATS unit providing that service
Explanation:
Advisory Airspace is a type of controlled airspace established to ensure separation and guidance for IFR flights where full ATC services are not provided due to certain limitations such as radar coverage. If aircraft wants to fly IFR and doesn’t want to use atc service then it should submit the flight plan and notify the changes to ATS.
Q17. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
Correct Answer is:
Taxiing need not to be confined to the taxiways
Explanation:
Only Takeoff and Landing needs to be confined on paved surface but taxiing and parking need not be done only on confined surface beacuse the strength bearing capacity of the runway and taxiway is not high and the aircraft can fumble and get damage.
Q18. Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
Correct Answer is:
Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time
Explanation:
Green flashes in flight: it means wait for landing clearance, Green flashes on land: it means cleared to taxi.
Q19. A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft I flight means:
Correct Answer is:
Airfield is unsafe, do not land
Explanation:
Red flashes in flight: it means aerodrome is closed or not available for landing. Red flashes on Ground: means landing area in use/ move clear of runway.
Q20. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
Correct Answer is:
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
Explanation:
Overtaking situation is considered when the other aircraft falls in within 70 degree with the plane of symmetry of the later. At night when the other aircraft is unable to see the Red or Green light of the aircraft, if these lights are visible then iit is considered as crossing because the coverage of white light is 70 degree with the plane of symmetry.
Q21. What is Special VFR?
Correct Answer is:
A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC
Explanation:
S-VFR is VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC only allowed in day operations. If minimum ground visibility falls below 1500metre then SVFR operations cant be done.
Q22. On the ground, when two aircraft are approaching head on:
Correct Answer is:
Both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well clear
Explanation:
When two airplane are approaching head on collision then both plane should stop wherever practicable or both aircraft should turn to its right side in order to prevent collision.
Q23. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case:
Correct Answer is:
The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan
Explanation:
Variation in TAS: +/- 0.02 Mach no. OR +/- 19kmph OR +/- 5% of TAS inform ATS in this order
Q24. No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements unless at a height that will permit, In the event of an emergency a landing to be made safely. Exceptions to this rule are:
Correct Answer is:
Take-off and landing and permission from the appropriate authority
Explanation:
When an aircraft is being flown over cities and congested areas the 1000′ vertical separation needs to be maintained and the horizontal separation is 600m from any obstacle or terrain. Only in certain cases this separation can be reduced with prior approval from authorities.
Q25. The VMC minima for an airspace classified in “G” above 10000 feet MSL are:
Correct Answer is:
1500 m horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
Explanation:
VMC Minima for Cass G Airspace (above 10000 ft MSL) is 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally, 8km visibility. (Below 10000ft MSL) : 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally, 5 km visibility.
Q26. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
Correct Answer is:
Mach 0.02
Explanation:
Variation in TAS: +/- 0.02 Mach no. OR +/- 19kmph OR +/- 5% of TAS inform ATS in this order because if the speed changes till this extent then ETA for next reporting point decreases and ATS needs to be informed in such cases.
Q27. PIC of an aeroplane shall:
Correct Answer is:
All above is correct
Explanation:
PIC should be responsible for safe conduct of navigation and safe conduct of flight throughout the journey.
Q28. An aircraft being towed by night must display:
Correct Answer is:
The same lights that are required in flight
Explanation:
While being towed the aircraft must display same lights required in flights such as Anti Collision and Navigation Lights in Night.
Q29. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. You should:
Correct Answer is:
Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
Explanation:
In such cases instructions should be followed of intercepting aircraft otherwise it may cause harm to the a/c and try to communicate with the aircraft on distress frequencies.
Q30. When a pilot raises his arms extended palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the face this means:
Correct Answer is:
Insert chocks
Explanation:
Marshal showing arms extended palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the face. Chocks is wedges used to keep aircraft from moving while parked or during maintenance and pre-flight preparation
Q31. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
Correct Answer is:
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
Explanation:
IN such cases the ATC Unit should be notified as soon as situation permits when there is a deviation of flight path as given in ATC Clearance.
Q32. At an aerodromes special VFR may be authorized when:
Correct Answer is:
Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
Explanation:
SVFR means Special VFR. These flights are only allowed in class B,C, D airspace. When the visibility fall belowe 5000 m and we are unable to carry out VFR operations but we are inside the CTR then with the ATC guidance we can land and takeoff from the aerodrome.
Q33. An aircraft is following a track of 1700 (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels available to the pilot are:
Aircraft flying on track of 170 (M) then it’s flying in East Bound Region then it’ll be assigned ODD FL but as it’s flying VFR so +500 ft to ODD FL assigned.
Q34. Two a/c of same category converging…
Correct Answer is:
Aircraft on the left will give way
Explanation:
When two aircraft are on converging tracks then the aircraft on the right has Right of Way
Q35. Outside controlled airspace above 3000’ AMSL
Correct Answer is:
Fly on 1013.2
Explanation:
QNE is important because it ensures consistent altitude measurements, which is critical for flight safety and efficiency. Outside controlled airspace above 3000′ AMSL we fly on QNE or 1013.25 hPa to maintain uniformity and safe separation.
Q36. What does a red flashing light from the control tower to an aircraft on the manoeuvring area mean?
Correct Answer is:
Move clear of the landing area
Explanation:
Red flashes in flight: it means aerodrome is closed or not available for landing. Red flashes on Ground: means landing area in use/ move clear of runway.
Q37. Which of the following defines flight visibility?
Correct Answer is:
The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
Explanation:
The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
Q38. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collison light:
Correct Answer is:
On the ground when the engines are running
Explanation:
Anti collision light is flashing red color beacon and have 360 degree coverage. It should be turned on when the engines of the aircraft are ON and to attract the attention of other aircraft and people to not to come in proximity of the aircraft.
Q39. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
Correct Answer is:
1500 ft or visibility is less than 5 km
Explanation:
A VFR flight can only operate in certain VMC conditions such as 5 km visibility and 1000 ft vertical separation and 1500m horizontal separation from clouds and ceiling less than 1500 ft. If VMC minimas are below these weather conditions then VFR flight cannot leave the control zone. They can either request for SVFR if in B, C, D airspace else they have to file for IFR flight plan.
Q40. Which type of service is provided in Class F airspace:
Correct Answer is:
Air traffic advisory service and FIS
Explanation:
Advisory Airspace is a type of controlled airspace established to ensure separation and guidance for IFR flights where full ATC services are not provided due to certain limitations such as radar coverage and FIS is Flight Information Service it provides information and alerts that help pilots make informed decisions, especially in uncontrolled airspace such as weather,aerodrome or traffic information.
Q41. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flightplan should be amended or cancelled and a new flightplan submitted when the delay is:
Correct Answer is:
15 min in excess of the estimated time off blocks
Explanation:
In a controlled flight, a new FLIGHT PLAN needs to be submitted when there is a delay of 15 mins or more in excess of EOBT. A new flight plan needs to be submitted.
Q42. When is deviation from the rules of the air permitted:
Correct Answer is:
Only in the interests of flight safety
Explanation:
The aircraft can be deviated by PIC only in cases of flight safety such as passing thorugh wind shear or bad weather.
Q43. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000 ft. Your distance from the cloud should be:
Correct Answer is:
1,000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally
Explanation:
While flying VFR should remain 1500 m horizontally from clouds and 1000 ft vertically from clouds and forward visibility should be more than 5 km
Q44. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
Correct Answer is:
Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
Explanation:
Red flare or Pyrotechnique means all the previous instruction given by the ATC in case of Comm failure are not withstanding and do not land for the time being.
Q45. In areas where a separation minimum of 1000 ft. is applied up to FL 410, authorisation for VFR flight shall not be granted above which flight level?
Correct Answer is:
FL 290
Explanation:
After FL290 the air density decreases and so does the accuracy of instruments. So flying VFR is not permitted. IFR flying is allowed with a vertical separation of 1000 ft between the aircrafts.
Q46. SVFR may be authorized when the ground visibility is not less than:
Correct Answer is:
1500 m
Explanation:
When the ground visibility falls below 1500 m SVFR operations will not be permitted.
Q47. A flashing intermittent red light from the ground to an aircraft in the air means:
Correct Answer is:
Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
Explanation:
Q48. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degrees relative bearing. In that case you should see his:
Correct Answer is:
Green navigation light
Explanation:
Relative bearing: The angle between direction in which the aircraft is flying to the station or other aircraft in clockwise direction. If the plane B is 100 degree to plane A so the aircrat will see its starboard side and green lights.
Q49. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
Correct Answer is:
CAN NOT
Explanation:
With Intercepting aircraft should use simple phrases such as ”CAN NOT ‘in case he is unable to comply with instructions recieved when there is a language barrier
Q50. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
Correct Answer is:
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC
Explanation:
While experiencing communication failure in when in VMC conditions the first thing is to land at the nearest airport maintaing visuals in VMC conditions and the other scenario is in IMC condition in IMC condition we will fly the aircraft at the same speed and flight level given by the ATC for a period of 7 minutes in RADAR airspace and for a period of 20 minutes in NON- RADAR airspace then afterwards fly normal instrumewnt approcach as per filled in flight plan.
Q51. Which of the following aerodrome ground signals displayed in the signals area indicates that glider flying is in progress?
Correct Answer is:
A white double cross
Explanation:
A white double cross OR two Red Balls hanging from Mast represents that glider flying is in progress be ready to give Right of Way
Q52. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Correct Answer is:
Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as possible
Explanation:
In case of controlled flight devaited from track so adjust the heading of aircraft to track as soon as possible .
Q53. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
Correct Answer is:
Must vacate the landing area in use
Explanation:
Red flashes in flight: it means aerodrome is closed or not available for landing. Red flashes on Ground: means landing area in use/ move clear of runway
Q54. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500 ft MSL and 9000 ft MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
Correct Answer is:
1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility
Explanation:
1000 ft AGL: Clear of cloud and 5km visibility. 3000 ft AMSL: 1000 ft vertical separation from cloud, 1500 metre backward separation and 5 km forward visibility. 10,000 ft AMSL: 1000 ft vertical separation, 1500 m backward visibilty and 8km forward visibility
Q55. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
Correct Answer is:
Emergency aircraft
Explanation:
A emergency aircraft is given highest priority to land in cases such as fuel onbaoard an aircraft is considered to be exhausted and a hard landing will be made or in cases the aircraft is not in a state to remain airborne followed by AIR Ambulance then Search and Rescue Aircraft and last is VVIP aircraft.
Q56. The signal from pilot to marshaller which means – brakes applied – is:
Correct Answer is:
Right arm and hand with fingers extended in front of face, then clench fist
Explanation:
Right arm and hand with fingers extended in front of face, then clench fist
Q57. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Correct Answer is:
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clinch fist
Explanation:
In order to to apply brakes the signalman will raise arm with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body and then clench fist.
Q58. Aircraft “A” with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft “B” with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which is the right of way?
Correct Answer is:
Aircraft “B” if “A” is on its left
Explanation:
If two aircraft are on converging course then Aircrfat which is on the right of other aircraft will have RIGHT OF WAY.
Q59. A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates:
Correct Answer is:
The location where visiting pilots should report
Explanation:
Black letter “C” on Yellow background indicates that visiting pilot should report to ATC Reporting Office.
Q60. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight within controlled space is:
Correct Answer is:
1000 ft
Explanation:
1000 ft is minimum vertical distance from cloud while flying VFR and so that the ground reference can also be seen.
Q61. After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepted aircraft is rocking its wings. This means:
Correct Answer is:
Will comply
Explanation:
Rocking wings and flashing navigational lights by Intercepted Aircraft means UNDERSTOOD WILL COMPLY By making a 90 degree turn by intercepting aircraft means you may proceed.
Q62. ADC Validity period is
Correct Answer is:
(-15) to (+45) minutes of EOBT in RPL/ FPL
Explanation:
Air Defence Clearance (ADC) when going to operate within an Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ) or in Indian airspace. In case of scheduled flight it is -15 min to +45 mins. Suppose a flight is schedule at 1000hr UTC st ADC will be valid from 0945 hrs to 1030 hrs. In case of non scheduled flight the ADC validity is -15 min to + 3 hours from EOBT. It’ll remain same throughout the route.
Q63. If you see red and white lights of the aircraft ahead , it means
Correct Answer is:
The aircraft is moving right to left
Explanation:
The aircraft has RED light on PORT Side and GREN light on STARBOARD Side and WHITE Light in Tail Section so if we see RED and WHITE lights then it’s going from Right to Left.
Q64. When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles on the ground rests with:
Correct Answer is:
The aircraft commander
Explanation:
The air craft commander have the responsibility to remain clear of obstacles opn ground while flying SVFR.
Q65. A white dumpbell with a black bar spaced perpendicularly indicates:
Correct Answer is:
Are required to land and takeoff on runways only
Explanation:
Only Takeoff and Landing needs to be confined on paved surface but taxiing and parking need not be done only on confined surface
Q66. An aircraft is flying under IFR in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
Correct Answer is:
Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
Explanation:
Comm failure in IFR: A) Shift to VFR if VMC condition exist. B) Squawk Code 7600. C) Maintain last assigned speed and level (20 min in case of Non-Radar airspace) and (7 min in Radar airspace). D). Proceed accordingly as per flight plan and hold the facility. E) Descend from the facility at last recieved and acknowledged Expected Approach Time. F) Fly normal instrument approach. Land within 30 mins of ETA
Q67. A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates:
Correct Answer is:
Aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements, and landing are prohibited
Explanation:
Red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal means that Aerodorme is unsafe for movement of aircraft and landing is prohibited.
Q68. During initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be:
Correct Answer is:
Any desired value
Explanation:
It’s on pilot discretion and can set any deired value in altimeter during initial climb.
Q69. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Correct Answer is:
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clenched fist
Explanation:
The marshal shall Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clenched fist in fornt of pilot in order to tell the pilot to apply parking brakes.
Q70. Green flashes from Tower, this signal means that the aircraft:
Correct Answer is:
May continue to taxy towards the take-off area
Explanation:
Green flashes in flight: it means wait for landing clearance, Green flashes on land: it means cleared to taxi.
Q71. Two or more white crosses, displayed on runways and taxiways, indicate that:
Correct Answer is:
The section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement
Explanation:
Two or more white or yellow crosses on black background depicts that runway and taxiway are closed respectively.
Q72. An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within an ATZ:I} Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collisionII} Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operationIII} Make all turns to the right, when approaching for landing or taking-off unless otherwise instructedIV} Land and take-off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or an air traffic consideration determines that a different direction should be used:
Correct Answer is:
All statements except III) are correct
Explanation:
Should observe other aerordome traffic to prevent from collision. Should avoid pattern of traffic formed by other aircrafts. Only land and takeoff in winds unless they don’t have differrent direction to be used
Q73. Which is the correct order of priority:
Correct Answer is:
Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons
Explanation:
Ballons shall have right of way to Gliders, Gliders to Airships, Airships to lighter than-air-aircraft Powerdriven heavier-than-air-aircraft and .
Q74. IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC
Correct Answer is:
Fly according to flight plan
Explanation:
While experiencing communication failure if we are flying in VMC conditions then we need to land at nearest airport but in case of IMC conditions we have to continue the flight as per filed flight plan.
Q75. Semi-circular system sectors are:
Correct Answer is:
From 0000 to 1790 and 1800 to 3590
Explanation:
These Flights levels are always based on Magnetic heading 000 degree to 179 degree is east bound flights in this region will be given ODD FL such as FL50 FL70 for IFR Flights for VFR flights +500 ft is added means FL550, FL750 for magnetic heading 180 degree to 359 degree is west bound and flights will be given Even FL such as FL40 FL 60 for IFR flights and for VFR flights +500 ft is added in this so the FL45 and FL65.
Q76. If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, you should:
Correct Answer is:
Continue the flight according to flight plan
Explanation:
Comm failure in IFR: A) Shift to VFR if VMC condition exist. B) Squawk Code 7600. C) Maintain last assigned speed and level (20 min in case of Non-Radar airspace) and (7 min in Radar airspace). D). Proceed accordingly as per flight plan and hold the facility. E) Descend from the facility at last recieved and acknowledged Expected Approach Time. F) Fly normal instrument approach. Land within 30 mins of ETA
Q77. Flight Plan is to be filed atleast?
Correct Answer is:
Three hours before EOBT
Explanation:
For scheduled Flight: FPL needs to be submitted atleast 180 mins or 3 hrs earlier than EOBT. For remotely piloted aircraft (RPA), the FPL should be submitted at least 24 hours before the estimated time of departure. If there is a delay of more than one hour, the flight plan should be amended or a new one to be submitted.
Q78. On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 0050, the magnetic heading 3550. Which of the following flight level is correct?
Correct Answer is:
FL 55
Explanation:
Magnetic Track is 050 so it’s flying in East Bound Region then it’ll be assigned ODD FL but as it’s flying VFR so +500 ft to ODD FL assigned according to Semi Circular Rule
Q79. An airborne flight plan must be submitted:
Correct Answer is:
10 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area
Explanation:
An airborne flight must submit Flight Plan atleast 10 minutes before entry into CTA or Advisory Area and180 minutes if it’s yet to start its journey.
Q80. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces:
Correct Answer is:
CTR
Explanation:
Special VFR clearance should be obtained from ATC for Approach Control (CTR) which is responsible for Arrival and Departure.
Q81. In the event of proposed delay of ________ or more to the departure time for a flight plan has been previously filed, the PIC or his representative will be required to notify ATC of revised ETD
Correct Answer is:
15 min
Explanation:
In case of flight delay of 15 min or more a new FPL needs to submitted and needs to be notified to ATC
Q82. What is the meaning of AGL?
Correct Answer is:
Above ground level
Explanation:
AGL stands for Above Ground Level
Q83. When, in airspace where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:1] He must inform the control unit (“cancel IFR”)2] He must request and obtain clearance3] He may request his IFR flightplan to be changed to a VFR flightplan4] The flightplan automatically becomes a VFR flightplanThe combination of correct statements is:
Correct Answer is:
45383
Explanation:
If PIC want to fly VFR instead of IFR then pilot may inform control unit to cancel IFR and he can fly VFR if VMC Conditions exist.
Q84. When two aircraft are approaching head on, and there is a danger of collision:
Correct Answer is:
Both aircraft alter course to the right (starboard side)
Explanation:
Both aircrfat should turn to their respective right or Starboard side in order to avoid collision.
Q85. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
Correct Answer is:
If the commander so requests
Explanation:
If PIC want to fly VFR instead of IFR then pilot may infrom control unit to cancel IFR and he can fly VFR if VMC Conditions exist.
Q86. If you see Green and White lights of the aircraft ahead, it means
Correct Answer is:
The aircraft is moving from left to right
Explanation:
The aircraft has RED light on PORT Side and GREN light on STARBOARD Side and WHITE Light in Tail Section so if we see Green and White Lights then aircraft is going from Left to Right.
Q87. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as “G” above 10000 ft MSL are:
Correct Answer is:
1500 m horizontally, ,1000 ft vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
Explanation:
Class G (above 10000ft): 1500metre horizontally, 1000 ft vertically form clouds; 8km visibilty. Class G (below 10000ft): 1500 metre horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 5km visibility.
Q88. An aircraft maneuvering in an airport’s’ circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
Correct Answer is:
Not land because the airport is not available for landing
Explanation:
Red flashes in flight: it means aerodrome is closed or not available for landing. Red flashes on Ground: means landing area in use/ move clear of runway.
Q89. The commander of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger seat belts are secure for:
Correct Answer is:
Take-off, landing, taxiing, turbulence and during emergencies
Explanation:
Take off, landing, taxiing, turbulence and during emergencies in order for passenger safety.
Q90. If the sustained Mach number/true airspeed at cruising level varies by plus or minus________true airspeed or more from the current flight plan, the appropriate air traffic services unit shall be so informed:
Correct Answer is:
19 km/h
Explanation:
Variation in TAS: +/- 0.02 Mach no. OR +/- 19kmph OR +/- 5% of TAS inform ATS in this order.
Q91. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
Correct Answer is:
8 km at or above 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL,1500 m horizontal and 1000ft vertical and clear of clouds
Explanation:
Above FL100: 8 km at or above 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL,1500 m horizontal and 1000ft vertical and clear of clouds Below FL100: 5km visibility, 1000ft vertical separation and 1500m horizontal separation.
Q92. The aerodrome at Calicut is not declared suitable for night operations. If the sunrise is at 0550 the earliest time by which an VFR aircraft operation at the station can take place is:
Correct Answer is:
520
Explanation:
Night Flying is considered 30 mins after sunset till 30 mins before sunrise. Flights flying between thiss time will be considered as night flying. So if the time of sunrise is 0550 then 30 mins before the flight can land there.
Q93. Within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 feet margin above the following two levels:
Correct Answer is:
3000 feet AMSL or 1000 feet AGL
Explanation:
3000 feet AMSL or 1000 feet AGL
Q94. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
Correct Answer is:
121.5 MHz – 243 MHz
Explanation:
In case of interception the aircraft should try to establish a communication with intercepting aircraft on 121.5MHz-243Mhz and 2182 KHz
Q95. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
Correct Answer is:
At least 2000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position
Explanation:
If state has not established minimun IFR altitude the minimum height should be atleast 2000 ft and within 8 km of estimated position for safety purpose.
Q96. Aircraft shall not be flown in formation except:
Correct Answer is:
Formation flying is not permitted in India for civil aircraft.
Explanation:
Formation flying is not permitted in INDIA for civil aircraft.
Q97. What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated areas?
Correct Answer is:
1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position
Explanation:
1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position so that aircraft can be maneveured to prevent any incident.
Q98. Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
Correct Answer is:
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance : not required;
Explanation:
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance : not required;
Q99. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
Correct Answer is:
May continue to taxi towards the take-off area
Explanation:
Green flashes in flight: it means wait for landing clearance, Green flashes on land: it means cleared to taxi.
Q100. Aircraft taxiing in the manoeuvring area must give way to:
Correct Answer is:
Departing and landing traffic
Explanation:
Aircraft taxiing in maneuvering must give way to departing and landing trafffic in order not cause any hinderance while departing and landing.
Q101. Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on:
Correct Answer is:
As soon as engines are running
Explanation:
In order to attract other aircraft attention and to show that engines are running.
Q102. When flying on an airway on a heading of 255(M) the correct flight level will be:
Correct Answer is:
Usually EVEN
Explanation:
While flying heading of 255(M) it’s west bound region so assigned FL will be EVEN but if flying below FL50 then no need to follow semi-circular rule so it’ll be usually EVEN.
Q103. An aircraft which is being subject to unlawful interference (“hijacked”) and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
Correct Answer is:
Continue at an altitude that differes from the semicircular rule with 1000ft when above FL 290 and 500 ft when lower than FL 290
Explanation:
The hijacked ac should try to squawk code 7500 & Fly lower 500 ft when below FL290 and 1000 ft if above FL 290 than assigned FL so the ATC can get to know the aircraft is under hijack and unlawful interference situation.
Q104. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft?
Correct Answer is:
The Commander
Explanation:
The commander has final authority over disposition of aircraft
Q105. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
Correct Answer is:
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
Explanation:
If the aircraft is in aerodrome traffic and experiences radio communication failure then repeated switching on and off landing lights needs to be done to indicate a state of emergency so it will be given priority to land. In case of no landing lights the navigation lights can be used.
Q106. One of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct:
Correct Answer is:
A taxing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft
Explanation:
Taxiing Aircraft should be given priority than vehicle towing an aircraft because taxiing aircraft is moving on its own power so it’ll burn fuel while waiting for the aircrfat to vacate the way also Taxiing Aircraft have passengers it’ll cause more delay.
Q107. When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m amsl the minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR flight is:
Correct Answer is:
Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
Explanation:
While flying in class F airspace below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft above terrain: Remain clear of cloud and in sight of surface woth a forward visibility of 5km.