Q1. RSP 180 indicates:
Correct Answer is:Time in seconds between flight crew/HMI and controller/HMI.Explanation:Required Survelliance Performance (RSP): The number attached to RSP for eg RSP 180 number of seconds it takes for Survelliance data from the Communication Service Provider (CSP) interface to arrive at the ATSU Flight data processing system. RSP 180 means 99.9% of survelliance data must be delivered in less than 180 seconds.Q2. An air traffic control unit:
Correct Answer is:May ask an aircraft to temporarily change its callsign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar callsignsExplanation:Air Traffic Control unit may ask to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when two or more aircrafts have similar call sign so in order to eliminate chances of confusion ATC may ask to do this.Q3. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
Correct Answer is:5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloudsExplanation:The VMC conditions for Class B Airspace below FL 100 is 5 km forward visibility, 1500 m horizontal spearation of clouds and 1000ft or 300 m vertical separation from clouds.Q4. In ATS route designator UA1Y what does U mean:
Correct Answer is:UpperExplanation:Routes in INDIA: W: Domestic Routes U: upper Airspace Routes S: Supersonic Routes K: Low Level Routes (generally for Helicopters)Q5. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
Correct Answer is:Below 1500 m (5000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greaterExplanation:ATIS Broadcast currenrt weather of Aerodrome within 5 NM radius and 5000 ft (1500 m) in height. It contains information like Current weather, Transition layer, visibility, altimeter settings.Q6. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
Correct Answer is:250 kt for IFR and VFR up to FL 100Explanation:The speed limitation for both IFR and VFR Flights in ATS classified Class E Airspace is 250 kts upto FL100.Q7. TSA801(A) is an airspace
Correct Answer is:temporarily segregated and allocated in Chennai FIRExplanation:Temporary Segregated Area is defined as airspace temporarlily segregated and allocated for exclusive use of particular user during specific period of time temporarily segregated and other flights are not allowed at that time. The airspace is designated by TSA as prefix and number between 501 to 999 is also added. TSA801 (A) is area for Thanjavur which is in Chennai FIR. For eg area used for Military exercises & Aerial refuelingQ8. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated:
Correct Answer is:Immediately a significant change occursExplanation:In ATIS information contains information like nae of airport, Current weather, Transition layer, visibility, altimeter settings and if there is any significant change occurs in betweeen then the broadcast message should be updated accordingly so that upcoming aircraft should recieve newest information.Q9. DETRESFA is where:
Correct Answer is:The fuel on board is considered to be exhaustedExplanation:Distress Phase (DETRESFA) is when it is certain that all the passengers are in grave and imminent danger and require immediate assistance. Such conditions are: A) Fuel onboard is considered to be exhausted B) When operating efficiency of aircraft has been impaired and forced landing is likely to be made C) When it is certain that aircraft will make forced landing. D) When the occupants are believed to be hijacked or under unlawful interference.Q10. G245ZF is a designator for:
Correct Answer is:an ATS RouteExplanation:ATS Routes will have atleast ONE Alphabet and Number from 1 to 999. For eg A729, B 302. Domestic routes starts with letter W.Q11. Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:
Correct Answer is:Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service unitsExplanation:Flight Information Service should be provided with the air traffic control to all the aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information.Q12. Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the Indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of:
Correct Answer is:Plus or minus 4 NM on a 95% containment basisExplanation:Required Navigation Performance (RNP) is a type of Performance based Navigation (PBN) that allows the aircraft to fly a specific path between two defined 3-D points in space. RNP 4 is the distance in nautical miles from the intended positon within which flight woiuld be for atleast 95% of flying time or it should achieve a lateral navigation accuracy of atleast 4 NMnfor atleast 95% of flying time.Q13. Area Control Centers issue clearances for the purpose of:
Correct Answer is:Achieving separation between controlled flightsExplanation:the ATC services give clearance to flight in order to provide separation between the flights so that no aircraft should cross the separation limit to reduce chances of incident or accident.Q14. ATIS broadcast:
Correct Answer is:Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILSExplanation:ATIS broadcast message can be on discrete VHF frequency or on voice channel of VOR but it can’t be on Voice channel of ILS because ILS is crucial for providing precise guidance to aircraft during the final approach and landing. Interference or additional broadcasts on this channel could affect the accuracy and efficiency of the ILS signals, potentially affecting the landing of aircraft.Q15. Air Traffic control service shall be provided to:
Correct Answer is:To all aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes.Explanation:Air Traffic Control Service shall be provided to all aerdorme traffic and aircraft flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome at the controlled aerodormes.Q16. At radio communications, “distress” differs from “Urgency” because in the first case:
Correct Answer is:There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistanceExplanation:In distress phaase it is certain that aircraft is in distress condition or operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impairerd to the extent that a hard landing will be made and in Urgency phase they are in need of assistance but immediately or aircraft is till in a codition to fly perfectly.Q17. Aerodrome local flying area is to be considered, if ATZ is not notified:
Correct Answer is:With in 5 NM of ARP up to 3000 feetExplanation:Aerodrome Local Flying area is considered within 5 NM of Aerodrome Reference Point or upto 3000 feet.Q18. Alerting service shall be provided:
Correct Answer is:For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATSExplanation:Alerting Service helps in monitoring flight progress and timely update to flying aircraft. Alerting Service is provided to every flight whol have filed a Flight Plan or is known to ATS even to the aircraft who is believed to be under unlawful interference.Q19. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
Correct Answer is:Control areaExplanation:Control Area can be defined as controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.Q20. What type of flight is allowed in class A airspace:
Correct Answer is:IFR onlyExplanation:In class A airspace only IFR flights are allowedQ21. To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E
Correct Answer is:Two-way radio communication is not requiredExplanation:In class E airspace IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are subjected to ATC. IFR flights are being separated from other IFR flights but Two way communication is not required and also no ATC Clearance is also required.Q22. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
Correct Answer is:Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air trafficExplanation:Air Traffic Control Service is provided to flights to prevent the collisions between aircrafts and obstacles on the manoeuvering area and rto expedite and maintain orderly flow of traffic.Q23. The different emergency phases (in correct order) are:
Correct Answer is:INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFAExplanation:Alerting Service is divided into 3 phases. 1) Uncertainity Phase (INCERFA) 2) Alert Phase (ALERFA) 3) Distress Phase (DETRESFA)Q24. An aircraft is in emergency when:
Correct Answer is:It is threatened by grave danger and requires immediate assistanceExplanation:When it is certain that aircraft and its occupants are threatened by Grave and imminent danger andrequires immediate assistance then DETRESFA is initiated.Q25. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
Correct Answer is:The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control TowerExplanation:Controlled Aerodorme can be defined as aerodrome at which air traffic control services is provided at aerodrome traffic. It indicated that air traffic control service is provided to aerdorme traffic but does not necessarily imply that control zone exist.Q26. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
Correct Answer is:5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be madeExplanation:Control Zone shall extend laterally to atleast 5 Nautical Miles from the centre of aerodorme concerned in the direction from where approaches are made. The purpose of Control Zone (CTR) is for efficient managament and assitance to landing and departing flights.Q27. Having filed a flight plan to a particular destination and having landed at another destination, you should notify ATC:
Correct Answer is:Within 30 minutes of your intended ETA at your original destinationExplanation:If flying according to filed flight plan but landed at another destination then it should be repoerted to the original destination as filled in flight plan.Q28. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time within plus or minus
Correct Answer is:30 seconds of UTC at all timesExplanation:Air Traffic Services unit clock and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within pils or minus 30 second of UTC.Q29. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
Correct Answer is:Area Control Center – Flight Information Centre-Approach Control Office-Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting officeExplanation:Q30. Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
Correct Answer is:A parachute flare showing a red lightExplanation:A parachute flare showing a red light shows the aircraft is in distress condition and requires immediate assistance.Q31. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
Correct Answer is:If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraftExplanation:In case of Approach Control Service if it is anticipated that upcoming aircraft needs to hold for more than 30 mins over holding area then EAT will be transmitted to the aircraft. EAT:It is the time at which Air Traffic Control (ATC) anticipates an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to begin its final approach for landing.Q32. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified:
Correct Answer is:Airspace FExplanation:Airspace FQ33. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
Correct Answer is:Achieving separation between controlled flightsExplanation:the ATC services give clearance to flight in order to provide separation between the flights so that no aircraft should cross the separation limit to reduce chances of incident or accident.Q34. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
Correct Answer is:Flight Information Service and Alerting ServiceExplanation:Flight Information Region (FIR) is the portion of airspace where it is determined that FLIGHT INFORMATION SERVICE and ALERTING SERVICE will be provided. India has been divided into 4 FIR’s MUMBAI (A) CHENNAI (O) DELHI (I) KOLKATA (E).Q35. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:
Correct Answer is:By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreementsExplanation:RNP can be variable as per contracting states on the beasis of regional air navigation agreements.Q36. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
Correct Answer is:Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phaseExplanation:Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phaseQ37. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
Correct Answer is:Airspace BExplanation:In class B airspace IFR and VFR flight are permitted; all flights are subjected to ATC clearance and are kept in separation with each other.Q38. The lateral limit of CTR shall extend to atleast_______NMs from the center of aerodrome in directions from where approaches may be made:
Correct Answer is:5Explanation:The lateral limit of CTR shall extend to atleast 10 NM fromthe centreof aerodorme in directions from where most of approaches are made.Q39. After rain Controller reports that runway is WET that indicates to a pilot that
Correct Answer is:the surface is soaked but there is not standing waterExplanation:WET Runway: When runway is covered with water, less than 3 mm deep, causing runway surface to appear reflective, but without sigificant standing water. DAMP Runway: When runway surface is not dry but moisture doesn’t give shiny appearance . CONTAMINATED/ FLOODED Runway: When more than 25% surface is covered by water more than 3 mm deep.Q40. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
Correct Answer is:Air traffic control and flight information centersExplanation:When the pilot is experiencing any difficulties such as communication failure then ATC or Flight Information Centre trigger the alert phases so adequate maesures can be taken to assist the aircraft in dsitress.Q41. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information (AFIS):
Correct Answer is:It can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC servicesExplanation:It’s a type of air traffic service provided at airfields that aren’t busy enough to warrant full air traffic control but still need some form of service to ensure safe and efficient flight operations. It provides Met information, traffic Information, and airport information.Q42. Aerodrome traffic is:
Correct Answer is:All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodromeExplanation:Aerodrome Traffic consist of aircraft on manoeuvring area (airport area excluding Apron) and aricrfta flying in the vicinity of aerodrome.Q43. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as practical, is classified as:
Correct Answer is:Airspace EExplanation:In ATS Class E airspace: IFR and VFR are permitted; IFr Flights are subjected to ATC. IFR flights are separated from other IFR Flights. All flights recieve traffic information as far as practicable.Q44. Which statement is correct?
Correct Answer is:The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700 ft AGLExplanation:The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700 ft AGLQ45. RCP 10 means:
Correct Answer is:10 is the number of seconds it takes for an instruction to travel from the ground to aircraft and acknowledgment back to the groundExplanation:Required Communication Performance (RCP) RCP 10 the number attached to RCP tells about number of seconds it takes for an instruction to travel from ground to aircraft and acknowledgement back to ground.Q46. Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?
Correct Answer is:An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established.Explanation:Alert Phase (ALERFA) exists when doubt exists to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants or when distress ohase is more appropriate. Such conditions are: A) When aircraft is cleared to land but fails to lands within 5 minutes. B) Even after distress phase no radio contact has been established or no news of aircraft has been recieved. C) When information has been recieved that operating efficiencyof the aircraft has been impaired but not to the extent that a forced landing has to be made. D) When aircraft is known or believed that it is under hijack or unlwaful interference.Q47. Designated Airspace within controlled airspace in India is classified as Class
Correct Answer is:C & DExplanation:For class C and D designated airspace controlled airspace is provided.Q48. The Alerting Service is provided by:
Correct Answer is:The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that momentExplanation:The alerting service will be provided by the ATS providing ATS services in that area as per phase in which the aircraft is in.Q49. Tirupati aerodrome designator is?
Correct Answer is:VOTPExplanation:The first letter “V” identifies the AFSRA denoted to INDIA. The second letter identified FIR or state. The Third and fourth letter denotes airport or place. India has been divided into 4 FIR’s MUMBAI (A) CHENNAI (O) DELHI (I) KOLKATA (E). Tirupati comes under Chennai FIR so the ICAO Code is VOTP.Q50. A strayed aircraft is an aircraft:
Correct Answer is:That has deviated significantly from its intended track or reports that it is lost.Explanation:Strayed aircraft can be defined as aircraft which has deviated from the intended track. and is in a situation that he unable to locate his own positionQ51. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspaceclassified as B, when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft) AMLS is:
Correct Answer is:Not applicableExplanation:In class B airspace speed limit is not applicable for both IFR flights and VFR Flights is not applicable while flying below FL 100. The speed restriction starts from Class C Airspace.Q52. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
Correct Answer is:Airspace BExplanation:For class B airspace both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subjected to air traffic control service and separation is provided to both flights.Q53. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
Correct Answer is:Airspace CExplanation:In class C Airspace IFR and VFR flights are permitted, flights are subjected to air traffic control service. ATC Separation is given to IFR-IFR, IFR-VFR,VFR-IFR flights. Class C airspace extends from 4000 ft till FL 285.Q54. A lower limit of a control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
Correct Answer is:200 mExplanation:200 m is the lower limit of Control Area is established at a height above the ground level.Q55. You receive an IFR enroute clearance starting: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
Correct Answer is:If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issuedExplanation:IFR Enroute clearance given by ATS means that we should be airborne till 0920 if not done then new clerance needs to be taken again.Q56. The speed limitations for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL is:
Correct Answer is:250kt IASExplanation:Speed limit for IFR Flights inside Class E airspace is 250 kts when flying below 3050 m or 10000 ft AMSL.Q57. Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
Correct Answer is:A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earthExplanation:Controlled Area (CTA) airspace extending upwards from specified limit above the earth. The lower limit of CTA is not less than 200 m (700ft) above MSL or AGLQ58. Alert phase is defined as follows:
Correct Answer is:A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupantsExplanation:Alert Phase (ALERFA) exists when doubt exists to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants or when distress ohase is more appropriate. Such conditions are: A) When aircraft is cleared to land but fails to lands within 5 minutes. B) Even after distress phase no radio contact has been established or no news of aircraft has been recieved. C) When information has been recieved that operating efficiencyof the aircraft has been impaired but not to the extent that a forced landing has to be made. D) When aircraft is known or believed that it is under hijack or unlwaful interference.Q59. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL, is:
Correct Answer is:Not applicableExplanation:The speed limitation for IFR flights in ATS airspace classified as C doesn’t have any speed limitation but in case of VFR flights the speed limitation is 250 kts.Q60. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes:
Correct Answer is:C, D, E, F and GExplanation:C, D, E, F and GQ61. The following airspace falls under Kolkata FIR?
Correct Answer is:VEDExplanation:India has been divided into 4 FIR’s MUMBAI (A) CHENNAI (O) DELHI (I) KOLKATA (E).Q62. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Correct Answer is:Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported valuesExplanation:Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is voice broadcast of essential information in a high activity terminal area to reduce communication load on the ATS VHF air ground communication channels. ATIS broadcast weather within 5 NM radius and 1500 m height.Q63. Class C airspace in India extends from __________ to ___________
Correct Answer is:FL 150 , FL 290Explanation:For class C airspace it starts from 4000 feet, and ends at FL285.Q64. Temporary Reserved Area (TRA) is an airspace temporarily reserved and allocated
Correct Answer is:through which other traffic may be allowed to transit under ATC clearanceExplanation:Temporary Reserved Area (TRA) is airspace temporarily reserved and allocated for specific user and in specific timeand through this area other traffic may be allowed to with the permission of ATC. It is designated bby prefix TRA and number followed by 501 to 999 and the name of area from where it belongs to.Q65. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is:
Correct Answer is:Airmet InformationExplanation:AIRMET INFORMATION: It is issued by meterological office and tells about weather update for low level aircraft operations whichwas previously not included in weather report.Q66. MFA published in AIP ensure that at least 1000 ft vertical clearance from obstacles within ____________ of centreline
Correct Answer is:10 kmExplanation:Minimum Flying Altitude (MFA) published in AIP ensures that atleast 1000 ft vertical separation from obstacles should be provided within 10 km of centreline.Q67. Which statement regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
Correct Answer is:An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirableExplanation:When an aircraft is coming for landing and enters the traffic circuit in order to land without the permission of ATC will be cleared to land in conditions when the aircraft is under some kind of emergency so it will be given priority or if it is desirable.Q68. Air Traffic Service unit means:
Correct Answer is:Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers of Air Services reporting officesExplanation:Air Traffic Service unit consist of Flight Information Centres, Air Services reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units.Q69. The VMC minima for VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
Correct Answer is:8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloudsExplanation:In VMC conditions for class B Airspace to fly VFR Flights we should have 8km forward visibility when above FL100 and 5km when below FL100; 1500 m horizontal separation from clouds and 1000ft or 300 m vertical separation from clouds.Q70. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
Correct Answer is:E airspaceExplanation:S-VFR is VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC only allowed in day operations. If minimum ground visibility falls below 1500metre then SVFR operations cant be done but within class E airspace S-VFR can be allowed within local flying area.Q71. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service:
Correct Answer is:Provided for the arriving and departing controlled flightsExplanation:Approach Control Service basically provide assistance or information to arriving and departling flights in controlled flights.Q72. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed:
Correct Answer is:30 secExplanation:ATIS broadcast message whenever practicable shouldn’t exceed 30 sec covering all the necessary information.Q73. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
Correct Answer is:Annex 11Explanation:Annexure 11 of Chicago Convention deals International Standard and recommended practices (SARPS) for Air Traffic Service.Q74. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency phase does this situation correspond?
Correct Answer is:ALERFAExplanation:Alert Phase (ALERFA) exists when doubt exists to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants or when distress phase is more appropriate. Such conditions are: A) When aircraft is cleared to land but fails to lands within 5 minutes. B) Even after distress phase no radio contact has been established or no news of aircraft has been recieved. C) When information has been recieved that operating efficiencyof the aircraft has been impaired but not to the extent that a forced landing has to be made. D) When aircraft is known or believed that it is under hijack or unlwaful interference.Q75. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as:
Correct Answer is:Airspace GExplanation:ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and gets Advisory services and Flight Information Services (FIS) when requested is classified as AIRSPACE GQ76. Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of:
Correct Answer is:The air traffic servicesExplanation:The air traffic services is responsible for preparation and dissemination of ATIS message.