Results
Q1. A standby artificial horizon must have the following properties: 1. a remote gyro 2. its own power supply 3. only to be used in emergency 4. its own gyro 5. one for each certified pilot
Correct answer is – 2 & 4
Q2. The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?
Correct answer is – Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
Q3. When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will:
Correct answer is – Decrease.
Q4. Apparent Drift Due to Earth rate at 25 degrees south is?
Correct answer is – 6.34° per hour.
Q5. A directional gyro requires?
Correct answer is – Two gimbals, two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis,
Q6. An aircraft is flying at FL350 with a ISA deviation of +8. The Mach No. is 0.83 and the TAS 485. If the aircraft descends to FL300 and maintains the same Mach No. and TAS, the ISA deviation will now be:
Correct answer is – -2
Q7. Inside an artificial horizon:
Correct answer is – the inner gimbal ring is pivoted laterally inside the outer gimbal ring and the outer gimbal ring is pivoted longitudinally inside the case
Q8. If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?
Correct answer is – The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.
Q9. The fundamental difference between INS and IRS is that?
Correct answer is – The IRS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted at 90° to each other
Q10. In order to align a strap-down inertial unit, it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is necessary to?
Correct answer is – Position the computing trihedron with reference to the earth.
Q11. Rotor mass of a gyroscope is doubled but Rotation speed is made half of the actual RPM. The rate of precession will get
Correct answer is – No change
Q12. The alternate static source of a light non-pressurized aircraft is located in the flight deck. As the alternate static source is opened, the vertical airspeed indicator may:
Correct answer is – indicate a momentary climb.
Q13. An aircraft is flying at 4000 ft from a high-temperature area to a cold temperature area where the temperature difference is 20°C. What will be the actual height of the aircraft:
Correct answer is – 3680 ft
Q14. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:
Correct answer is – above the Centre of gravity
Q15. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a heading 360 with 30° bank. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on approximate heading of :
Correct answer is – 030 in S.H and 330 in N.H
Q16. The pressure alt is 29000 feet and the SAT is -55°C. QNH 1012 hPa and elevation of runway is 300 feet AMSL. What is density altitude?
Correct answer is – 27500 feet.
Q17. The directive force of the earth’s magnetic field:
Correct answer is – is greatest at the magnetic equator
Q18. What will happen if an aircraft has two altimeters, one of which is compensated for position error, whilst the other is not?
Correct answer is – One will under read close to the ground.
Q19. A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that:
Correct answer is – True North is East of Magnetic North
Q20. VFE is the maximum speed?
Correct answer is – At which the flaps can be operated.
Q21. Pressure-Position error is maximum at
Correct answer is – higher angle of attack and lower airspeed
Q22. The hysteretic error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?
Correct answer is – Time passed at a given altitude.
Q23. Aircraft magnetism caused by vertical soft iron:
Correct answer is – varies with magnetic latitude but not with heading
Q24. Compass swings should be carried out:
Correct answer is – only on the compass swinging base or site
Q25. An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BROUDE (elevation = 1483 ft, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32°C). Five minutes later, passing 5 000 ft on QFE, the second altimeter is reset to 1013 hPa. After the reset it will indicate approximately:
Correct answer is – 6400 ft
Q26. What happens to TAT when an aircraft descends at constant indicated Mach number?
Correct answer is – Remains constant then increases.
Q27. VNE is the maximum speed:
Correct answer is – Which must never be exceeded.
Q28. In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
Correct answer is – an apparent turn to the North.
Q29. Aircraft magnetism caused by hard iron:
Correct answer is – is not usually influenced by the earth’s magnetic field
Q30. When descending at constant CAS, the TAT and mach meter indications should?
Correct answer is – Increase; decrease.
Q31. If an aircraft turns through 270° at a constant rate of turn and AOB, the indication on its classic artificial horizon will be?
Correct answer is – Bank right nose up.
Q32. What types of thermometer are used in modern aircraft? 1. Resistive. 2. Mercury. 3. Capacitive. 4. Inductive. 5. Thermocouples.
Correct answer is – 1, 2, 5.
Q33. How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when flying at constant CAS and altitude?
Correct answer is – Remain constant.
Q34. The altimeter indicates 10000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013.25 mb. OAT is +5°C. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
Correct answer is – 10,000 ft
Q35. When descending from FL400 and attempting to maintain maximum ground speed, airspeed will be limited by?
Correct answer is – MMO then VMO.
Q36. VNO is ………… and is indicated by the ……… On an ASI?
Correct answer is – Max speed for normal operations ; upper end of green arc.
Q37. Aircraft is cruising at FL250 on the way from KualaLumpur (KUL) – Singapore (SIN). If the density altitude is 25531 feet approx. Find LSS at the same level.
Correct answer is – 610 kts
Q38. If the pressure remains constant as temperature increases?
Correct answer is – Density will decrease, causing the CAS: TAS ratio to decrease.
Q39. An aircraft takes off from X with an altimeter setting of QNH 980hPa. Climbs to 10000’ and goes to Y. Height of aircraft over Y is 9500 feet. The elevation of Y is 1400feet. QNH at Y is : Use 1 hPa = 30 feet
Correct answer is – 1010
Q40. The input signal of the amplifier of the gyro-magnetic compass resetting device originates from the:
Correct answer is – error detector
Q41. The vertical speed indicator indications may be in error for some seconds after starting or finishing a climb or descent. The error is a result of:
Correct answer is – a combination of time lag and manoeuvre induced errors
Q42. Setting zero cost index on an FMS gives?
Correct answer is – Best range.
Q43. If the filter of the air-driven rate of turn indicator becomes partially blocked:
Correct answer is – the aircraft will turn faster than indicated
Q44. When descending through an isothermal layer at constant TAS?
Correct answer is – Mach number remains constant.
Q45. If a large aircraft is side slipped to starboard, and the port static vent is blocked, what will the altimeter read?
Correct answer is – Under-read
Q46. At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift-off at the same?
Correct answer is – CAS.
Q47. During an acceleration phase at constant altitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a?
Correct answer is – Nose-up attitude.
Q48. The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS)
Correct answer is – An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
Q49. If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?
Correct answer is – The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.
Q50. What will be the effect on the ASI if the pitot tube of an unpressurized aircraft is fractured and the pitot drain is blocked?
Correct answer is – It will under read.
Q51. An aircraft is maintaining FL290 and TAS of 310 kts. Atmospheric condition: 6°C colder than ISA. Calculate the local speed of sound:
Correct answer is – 583 kts
Q52. During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
Correct answer is – no apparent turn.
Q53. VLE is the :
Correct answer is – maximum flight speed with landing gear down or extended.
Q54. The use of an alternate static source fed from within the cabin results that the static pressure sensed is likely to be:
Correct answer is – lower than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.
Q55. During cruise gradually ice builds up on the airframe of the aircraft because of that mass of the aircraft will __________ and stalling speed will be __________
Correct answer is – Increase, More than expected
Q56. If an aircraft with two static ports, yawing towards the unblocked port, the altitude indication will?
Correct answer is – Increase.
Q57. Today’s airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and instrumental) error:
Correct answer is – The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all case
Q58. An aircraft is flying at M0.86 at FL320. The temperature deviation is +10° C. The TAS is:
Correct answer is – 512 kts
Q59. The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of?
Correct answer is – An induction pick-off device.
Q60. The directive force of the earth’s magnetic field:
Correct answer is – is greatest at the magnetic equator
Q61. What will be corrective action when aircraft is maintaining bank angle of 35 degree with TAS of 250 knots during Rate 1 right turn.
Correct answer is – More Right Rudder
Q62. In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake:
Correct answer is – breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window.
Q63. A rate integrating gyro is used in: 1. inertial attitude unit 2. autopilot system 3. stabilizer servomechanism system 4. inertial navigation unit 5. rate of turn indicator
Correct answer is – 1 & 4
Q64. When aircraft is maintaining bank angle of 30 degree with TAS of 200 knots during Rate 1 right turn. which of the following is correct ?
Correct answer is – for balanced turn more Right Rudder required.
Q65. The barber’s pole on an ASI indicates?
Correct answer is – VMO Vs Altitude
Q66. Alignment of a RLG INS takes:
Correct answer is – Less than 10 minutes
Q67. If an aircraft climbs at constant TAS from FL 200 to FL 400 the Mach meter indication will?
Correct answer is – Increase then remain constant.
Q68. The pilot wishes to make a right turn from heading 050 to 220 at a latitude of 40°S. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on approximate heading of :
Correct answer is – 200°
Q69. What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at the constant altitude and bank angle?
Correct answer is – Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.
Q70. An airplane is flying at FL140 with a CAS of 260kt in standard conditions. The Mach number is:
Correct answer is – 0.51
Q71. The main advantage of electric gyros are:
Correct answer is – high rpm, high moment of inertia, rapid build-up of speed, constant RPM
Q72. Because the VSI measures rates of change of static pressure and not actual values of static pressure, position error:
Correct answer is – may cause errors in the VSI during the take-off run
Q73. An airplane is in a steady climb. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:
Correct answer is – Decreases.
Q74. An aircraft is descending from FL 300 to FL 250 with constant TAS 300 kts. If outside temperature is as of Standard atmosphere then:
Correct answer is – CAS increases by 17 kts
Q75. An aircraft is maintaining Rhumb line track A ( 70 S 30 W ) to B ( 70 S 090 W ). Given : Average Ground speed is 400 kts, Drift due to Real wander = + 1 degree /hr. Find the total drift per hr.
Correct answer is – -3 degree per hr
Q76. What are the inputs to the ADC? 1. OAT 2. dynamic pressure 3. TAT 4. static pressure 5. electric power 6. pitot pressure 7. AoA
Correct answer is – 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7
Q77. Apparent drift may be corrected in a DGI by:
Correct answer is – attaching a bias weight to the inner gimbal which makes the gyro precess in azimuth in the opposite direction to apparent wander
Q78. The advantage of having the VSI dial presentation in logarithmic spacing rather than in linear spacing is that:
Correct answer is – at low rates of climb or descent the pointer movement is much larger and so is more easily read
Q79. The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor:
Correct answer is – causes the directional gyro unit to precess
Q80. The dither motor in a ring laser gyroscope?
Correct answer is – Prevents laser lock.
Q81. Isogonals converge at the:
Correct answer is – North and South geographic and magnetic poles
Q82. What does the green arc on an ASI indicate?
Correct answer is – VNO at the upper end and VS1 at the lower end.
Q83. At a true airspeed of 500 knots, what is the ram rise?
Correct answer is – 25°C
Q84. The rotor axis of an electrical horizon is tied to the earth’s vertical by:
Correct answer is – two mercury level switches and two torque motors
Q85. An aircraft is maintaining TAS 210 kts and AOB 28 degree Right bank during a Rate 1 turn. what will be indication of turn indicator.
Correct answer is – None of the above
Q86. What would be the indication on an attitude indicator in the right turn?
Correct answer is – Climb due to pendulous vanes.
Q87. The vertical reference unit of a three axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with?
Correct answer is – 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
Q88. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° N. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on approximate heading of :
Correct answer is – 210°
Q89. Deviation due to coefficient A is mainly caused by:
Correct answer is – a misaligned lubber line
Q90. An aircraft is initiated a rate2 turn @ TAS = 360 kts, Find the Diameter of turn ?
Correct answer is – 2 Nm
Q91. The altitude indicated onboard an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is?
Correct answer is – Higher than the real altitude.
Q92. During initial alignment the IRS must be given coordinates to?
Correct answer is – Establish the trihedral with reference to the earth.
Q93. A rate integrating gyro is used in:
Correct answer is – an inertial navigation system
Q94. To obtain heading information a gyro-stabilized platform requires?
Correct answer is – A horizontal axis and one degree of freedom.
Q95. When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show:
Correct answer is – a climb
Q96. An aircraft takes off from X with QFE set on the altimeter, QNH of X 1008 hPa. Elevation of X = 600 feet. The aircraft climbs to 9800 feet and goes to Y. QNH at Y is 1010 hPa. The elevation of Y is 450ft. Find Altitude of aircraft over Y. Use 1 hPa = 30 feet
Correct answer is – 10460
Q97. False nose-up attitude displayed on the air-driven artificial horizon during the take-off run is caused by:
Correct answer is – the lag of the lateral pendulous vanes
Q98. The properties of a gyro are: 1. mass 2. rigidity 3. inertia 4. precession 5. rotational speed
Correct answer is – 2 & 4
Q99. Aircraft is cruising at FL180 on the way from Jakarta (CGK) – Singapore (SIN). Given : Density altitude is 20856 feet approx., Mach Number = 0.8. Find TAS ?
Correct answer is – 520 kts
Q100. The rigidity of a gyroscope depends on:
Correct answer is – mass, radius of gyration and speed of rotation