Results
Q1. *The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is:
Correct answer is – pulse width
Q2. When using SSR the ground controller will ask the pilot to cancel mode C if there is a discrepancy of more than …………. between the altitude detected by the radar from the reply pulses and the altitude reported by the pilot read from an altitude with the subscale set to ………….
Correct answer is – 300 ft 1013 HPa
Q3. In an AWR with a 5° beamwidth, how do you orientate the scanner to receive returns from clouds at or above your level?
Correct answer is – 2.5° uptilt
Q4. ## Secondary radars require:
Correct answer is – a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft or a ground-based transponder
Q5. *The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect?
Correct answer is – Snow
Q6. *A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of:
Correct answer is – 1025 MHz
Q7. *The transmission frequency of a DME beacon is 63 MHz removed from the aircraft interrogator frequency to prevent:
Correct answer is – the airborne receiver locking on to primary returns from its own transmissions
Q8. % A radar is designed to have a maximum range of 12 km. The maximum PRF that would permit this is:
Correct answer is – 12 500 pps
Q9. *A moving target indicator (MTI)?
Correct answer is – Rejects all stationary targets
Q10. *Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)?
Correct answer is – No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder.
Q11. The altitude read-out at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft altitude within:
Correct answer is – 50 ft
Q12. ## In a primary pulse radar, you have?
Correct answer is – A directional aerial for both transmission and reception
Q13. In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
Correct answer is – Beam width
Q14. **Consider the following statements on SSR Mode S?
Correct answer is – All of the statements are correct
Q15. ### The maximum range obtainable from an ATC en-route surveillance radar is approximate..
Correct answer is – 200 to 300 nm
Q16. The ISO-ECHO feature of airborne weather radar can be used to detect?
Correct answer is – Areas of possible turbulence in cloud
Q17. % An echo is received from a target 900 microseconds after the pulse was transmitted. The range to the target is:
Correct answer is – 73 NM
Q18. *The receiver of airborne DME equipment is able to “lock on” to its own “reply pulses” because:
Correct answer is – the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which have the same time interval between successive pulses as the pulses being transmitted by its own transmitter
Q19. *The pencil-shaped beam of airborne weather radar is used in preference to the determination of ground features:
Correct answer is – Beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam
Q20. *Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short-range operation?
Correct answer is – Primary continuous wave
Q21. *** The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:
Correct answer is – pulse repetition rate
Q22. *** Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?
Correct answer is – Snow; clear air turbulence
Q23. The theoretical maximum range for an airborne weather radar is determined by the?
Correct answer is – Pulse repetition frequency
Q24. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies to other aircraft transmissions because:
Correct answer is – the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft
Q25. *** The use of Doppler techniques to discriminate between aircraft and fixed objects results in the second trace returns being generated. These are removed by:
Correct answer is – jittering the PRF
Q26. Why does a secondary radar display free from weather clutter?
Correct answer is – The principle of the return of echoes is not used
Q27. ** The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME system is to?
Correct answer is – Prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter
Q28. A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in?
Correct answer is – All modes
Q29. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?
Correct answer is – A DME on the flight plan route
Q30. *** Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?
Correct answer is – It eliminates the minimum target reception range
Q31. The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency ………. radio failure ………., unlawful interference with the conduct of the flight ……….
Correct answer is – 7700 , 7600 , 7500
Q32. ***When both SSR and primary radar is presented on the controller’s display?
Correct answer is – The primary radar information is more accurate in bearing and distance, The primary radar element of the ATC Surveillance Radar System provides detection of suitable targets with good accuracy in bearing and range measurement as compare to SSR, but with certain limitations: If Targets that are too small, built of materials that reflect radar energy poorly, or have a poor aspect may not be detected. Radar energy suffers attenuation (losses) both on the path out to the target and on the return path of the reflections.
Q33. *An airborne weather radar, with a beamwidth of 5 degrees in azimuth, is being used in the mapping mode. At what maximum range, it will be able to detect and 1 nm wide opening in a sea cliff?
Correct answer is – 12 nm
Q34. *The frequency band and rate of the scan of Airfield Surface Movement radars are:
Correct answer is – SHF; 60 rpm
Q35. *** An aircraft at FL 300, with a ground speed of 300 kts, is about to pass overhead a DME station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining ground speed. One minute before the overhead, DME speed and distance indication respectively are?
Correct answer is – Less than 300 kts and 7 nm
Q36. # On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape of the and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
Correct answer is – Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
Q37. *While using the AWR in the weather mode, the strongest returns on the screen indicate?
Correct answer is – Areas of high concentration of large water droplets
Q38. *Distance Measuring Equipment is an example of …………. radar operating on a frequency of …………. in the …………. band.
Correct answer is – secondary ; 962 MHz ; UHF
Q39. *** Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the Transponder?
Correct answer is – STBY (Standby)
Q40. Before commencing a flight the weather radar should?
Correct answer is – Be kept at stand-by until line-up with the runway
Q41. *Referring to DME during the initial stage of the “search” pattern before “lock-on”:
Correct answer is – the airborne transmitter transmits 150 pulses each second
Q42. *** “Fruiting” is caused by?
Correct answer is – Airplanes at range responding to interrogations from another ATC SSR units
Q43. The time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of the reply from the DME ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at the DME). The slant range is:
Correct answer is – 165 NM
Q44. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in Morse code every 30 seconds:
Correct answer is – 4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone
Q45. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:
Correct answer is – the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud
Q46. *An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
Correct answer is – They are not on the receiver frequency
Q47. *** With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:
Correct answer is – RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
Q48. # A TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides?
Correct answer is – The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
Q49. ***Which of the following statements concerning TCAS is correct:
Correct answer is – TCAS II cannot provide information on non-SSR equipped intruders
Q50. *On a typical computer-generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will be shown?
Correct answer is – Squawk code, flight level, ground speed, airplane callsign
Q51. *** The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are
Air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability
Q52. During a surveillance radar approach, the vertical position of the aeroplane, unless advised otherwise, is given in terms of?
Correct answer is – Height above QNH datum
Q53. % A primary radar has a pulse repetition frequency of 275 PPS. The time interval between the leading edges of successive pulses is:
Correct answer is – 3.64 milliseconds
Q54. #Proximity traffic is defined as?
Correct answer is – Traffic within 6 nm radius and within 1200 ft above or below.
Q55. ## If an intruder aircraft has a Mode C transponder, TCAS 2 can give?
Correct answer is – TA and RA in the vertical plane only.
Q56. #Secondary surveillance radar (SSR) information is?
Correct answer is – Displayed on the same screen as primary radar information
Q57. *** Where can TCAS be displayed? 1. On its own screen 2. On the EFIS 3. Weather Radar 4. On VSI
Correct answer is – All 4
Q58. #Inputs to TCAS 2 include?
Correct answer is – Mode S transponders to coordinate avoidance manoeuvres.
Q59. *Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and pulses intended for other aircraft because
Correct answer is – aircraft reject pulses not synchronized with its own random pulse recurrence rate
Q60. * The main advantage of continuous-wave radars is:
Correct answer is – no minimum range limitation
Q61. **AWR in the……… Mode progressively…………. As distances increase. To equalize screen brightness?
Correct answer is – Mapping, decrease power, decreases
Q62. What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
Correct answer is – Aircraft positions only
Q63. # A TCAS TA is?
Correct answer is – A traffic advisory message indicating aircraft in the vicinity which may become a threat
Q64. **A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers, the last identifying letter of the DME is a Z. This means that:
Correct answer is – they are more than 600 m apart but serve the same location
Q65. *** To improve the resolution of a radar display requires:
Correct answer is – a narrow pulse width and a narrow beamwidth
Q66. ### To improve the detection of precipitation area(s) in e.g. Thunderstorms, in which the top of the cloud lies at or slightly above the level of flight?
Correct answer is – The tilting setting should be lower when the aircraft climbs to a higher altitude
Q67. Which statements relating to the stabilization system of the airborne weather radar antenna is true?
Correct answer is – They are stabilized with respect to the pitch and roll axes but not with respect to the yaw axis
Q68. Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form of ………. radar with ………. type emissions operating in the ………. band.
Correct answer is – secondary ; pulse ; UHF
Q69. #TCAS indicates proximate traffic as a……………………
Correct answer is – Cyan solid diamond.
Q70. *A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
Correct answer is – it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses
Q71. **How should a pilot respond to TCAS RA?
Correct answer is – Disengage the autopilot the immediately comply with climb and descent commands in a smooth manner.
Q72. TCAS RA is indicated by?
Correct answer is – Red square.
Q73. The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on …………. and receives on ………….
Correct answer is – 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
Q74. *In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR) signifies the:
Correct answer is – Number of pulses per second
Q75. *** In order to be able to penetrate the cloud, a primary radar signal must have?
Correct answer is – A long wavelength
Q76. The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because?
Correct answer is – A large area of grounds is illuminated by the beam
Q77. *An aircraft flying at FL250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft AMSL. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved?
Correct answer is – 222 NM
Q78. *** An intruder 500 ft above, climbing at 500 fpm or more, will be indicated by?
Correct answer is – A
Q79. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock-on a DME at MSL at a range of 210 NM. The reason for this is:
Correct answer is – the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
Q80. #The bearing of a primary radar is measured by:
Correct answer is – searchlight principle
Q81. An Airborne Weather Radar system uses a frequency of 9 GHz because:
Correct answer is – the wavelength is such that reflections are obtained only from the larger water droplets
Q82. *For a DME and a VOR to be said to be associated it is necessary for:
Correct answer is – the aerial separation not to exceed 100 ft in a TMA or 2000 ft outside a TMA
Q83. *** An advantage of a phased array (slotted antenna) is:
Correct answer is – all of the above
Q84. What most affects the range available from secondary surveillance radar?
Correct answer is – The height of the aircraft and the height of the ground interrogator
Q85. The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects a ‘traffic’ when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a?
Correct answer is – Serviceable SSR transponder.
Q86. Garbling is caused by?
Correct answer is – Airplanes in close proximity responding to the same interrogator
Q87. *** The Intruder is
Correct answer is – 300 below climbing with 500 feet per minute or more
Q88. *A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogation pulses and those intended for other aircraft using the same transponder because:
Correct answer is – each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate (jittering) and will only accept replies which match this randomization
Q89. The airborne weather radar is using a 5-degree beam. The cloud is detected at a range of 60 nm. If the scanner is tilted up 5 degrees, the cloud disappears. Using trigonometry to determine the height of the tops of the cloud, in relation to the aeroplane cruising level, select the nearest answer from the following?
Correct answer is – 15900 ft above the aircraft
Q90. *Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the “weather beam”?
Correct answer is – Cumulus
Q91. TCAS II obtains information from: 1. pressure encoding from mode S transponder 2. radio altimeter 3. aircraft specific configurations 4. inertial reference unit (IRU)
Correct answer is – 1, 2, 3, & 4
Q92. The AWR can be used on the ground provided: 1. the aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings, and vehicles 2. conical beam is selected 3. maximum uptilt is selected 4. the AWR must never be operated on the ground
Correct answer is – 1, 2 and 3
Q93. An airborne weather radar is required to detect targets up to a maximum range of 200 NM. Ignoring pulse length and fly back in the CRT calculate the maximum PRR.
Correct answer is – 405 pps
Q94. *In the SSR response, the operation of the transponder ident button?
Correct answer is – Sends out a special pulse after the normal pulse train
Q95. ## The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:
Correct answer is – Climb; Descend; Increase Climb; Increase Descent
Q96. ***If a radar has a beam width of 3 degrees and a pulse length of 4 microseconds, the target azimuth resolution at a range of 60 nm will be approximate
Correct answer is – 3 nm
Q97. The advantages of SSR mode S are:
Correct answer is – data link, reduced voice communications
Q98. *How should a pilot respond to a TCAS TA?
Correct answer is – Contact ATC before manoeuvring.
Q99. An aircraft at FL200 is 220 NM from a DME at MSL. The aircraft equipment fails to lock on to the DME. This is because:
Correct answer is – the aircraft is too low to receive the signal
Q100. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?
Correct answer is – DME