Q1. An aircraft is approaching to land with its CG at the forward limit. It will be ___ to flare and VREF will be ___ than normal.
Q2. When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater than 1 will be:
Q3. What is the effect on the aeroplane’s static longitudinal stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control deflection for a certain pitch up or down?
Q4. Rotation about the lateral axis is called:
Q5. The air loads on the horizontal tailplane (tail load) of an aeroplane in straight and level cruise flight:
Q6. The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the:
Q7. With the CG on the aft limit the control forces required to pitch the aircraft would be:
Q8. If an aircraft has a down-load on the tail plane, as the elevator is lowered:
Q9. The elevators control the aircraft around:
Q10. If the horizontal stabilizer gets stuck in the cruise position what action should you take on landing?
Q11. When the control column is moved forward and to the right:
Q12. An aircraft is fitted with an elevator with a servo tab mechanism in the pitch control system. If the elevator becomes jammed, what is the effect on pitch control?
Q13. If an increase in power tends to make the nose of an aeroplane rise, this is the result of the:
Q14. On an aircraft with an all-moving tail plane, backward movement of the control wheel in flight causes:
Q15. For an aircraft with a manually operated elevator:
Q16. Force on the tail and its effect on Vs due to CG movement:
Q17. What is the advantage of a variable incidence tail plane over a fixed incidence tail plane with elevator and trim tab?
Q18. When is the greatest up elevator angle required for landing?
Q19. An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing is:
Q20. Left rudder input will cause:
Q21. If the right rudder is pushed forward:
Q22. If left rudder is applied:
Q23. Directional control is:
Q24. When the rudder pedals are moved to cause a yaw to the left:
Q25. What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating propellers:
Q26. A symmetrical fin will give a side force:
Q27. Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?
Q28. Roll is:
Q29. Which motion occurs about the longitudinal axis?
Q30. If a turbulent gust causes an aeroplane to roll:
Q31. Adverse aileron yaw can be countered by:
Q32. While an aircraft is rolling, the down-going and up-going wing:
Q33. Lateral control is given by:
Q34. The aileron on which the leading edge protrudes below the wing when the aileron is raised, but not above it when the aileron is lowered is:
Q35. Which of the following is true with regard to inboard ailerons?
Q36. When the control column is moved back and to the left:
Q37. In a differential aileron system:
Q38. Adverse yaw during a turn entry is caused by:
Q39. When rolling out of a steep banked turn, what causes the lowered aileron to create more drag than when rolling into the turn?
Q40. The angle of deflection of a differential aileron when the aircraft is being rolled will be:
Q41. When an aircraft is rolled to the left, adverse aileron yaw will be reduced:
Q42. In a turn, differential ailerons:
Q43. Roll rate is rotation about the:
Q44. Adverse yaw in a turn is corrected with:
Q45. Which of the following is the correct example of differential aileron deflection to initiate a left turn?
Q46. Which of the following phenomena is prevented by differential ailerons?
Q47. Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:
Q48. Rolling is a ___ movement about the ___ axis:
Q49. An aeroplane fitted with differential ailerons is in a level turn to the right. Which of the following statements is correct?
Q50. For a given IAS and angle of aileron deflection, increasing altitude will:
Q51. Spoilers are operated asymmetrically:
Q52. Spoilers are normally extended:
Q53. When a jet aircraft enters a turn or straightens-up from a turn, what device ensures correct response?
Q54. What are the secondary effects of rudder and aileron respectively?
Q55. When the rudder is moved to the right, the force acting on the fin:
Q56. If an aircraft yaws to port, the secondary effect will be:
Q57. An aircraft’s tendency to dutch roll may be reduced by:
Q58. When an aircraft is rolled to port, adverse yaw will be reduced by:
Q59. Aerodynamic balance can be obtained by:
Q60. To hold a given sideslip angle and airspeed, increased geometric dihedral would:
Q61. Stick forces, provide by an elevator feel system, depend on:
Q62. When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, the weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface:
Q63. An aeroplane has a CG on the forward limit and full nose down trim. How will this affect stick forces at take-off?
Q64. What position must the stabilizer be in during take-off with a nose heavy aircraft, compared to a “balanced” aircraft?
Q65. Why does a transport aircraft with powered controls use a horizontal stabilizer trim?
Q66. On take-off, with the CG at the forward limit, the aeroplane is trimmed fully nose down. What is the effect?
Q67. VA is:
Q68. By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane’s weight decreases by 19%?
Q69. When flying at speeds above VA:
Q70. What is the relationship of VMO and MMO, in a climb and descent?
Q71. The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula: (SQRT= square root)
Q72. For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VS is:
Q73. Flutter may be caused by:
Q74. What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA?