Results
Q1. %An aircraft is tracking away from VOR “A” on the 310° radial with 8° starboard drift; NDB “X” is north of “A”. Which diagram below illustrates the RMI when the aircraft is on its present track with a QDR from “X” of 270° (Visual Q.)
A
Q2. %An airway 15 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5 degrees. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximate?
160 NM
Q3. %Given: Aircraft position 52 09 S 024 E, magnetic variation 14W, FL310. BIT VOR/DME position 54 42 S 024 E. Magnetic variation 14E. In order to read the most accurate ground speed given by the DME receiver from this position, the pilot must follow which BIT radial?
346 degrees
Q4. %An aircraft is homing towards a VOR which marks the centre line of an airway. The beacon is 100 NM distant. If the pilot had the airway QDM set on the OBS what deflection of the deviation indicator would be given if the aircraft was on the boundary of the airway? Assume that one dot equals 2 degrees.
1.5 dots
Q5. *While using the AWR in the weather mode, the strongest returns on the screen indicate?
Ares of high concentration of large water droplets
Q6. GPWS mode one gives warning of:
[excessive descent rate] –
Q7. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:
[on TOD] –
- 1: The FMC begins its navigation sequence with initial position entry.
- 2: Before radio updates or high-speed GPS/DME-DME filtering become stable after lift-off, the position relies heavily on the initial IRS alignment.
- 3: Drift and initial error are most prominent during the departure/take-off phase before external updates refine the Kalman filter.
Most inaccurate at — TOD
Most Accurate – after Update on threshold.
Q8. While maintaining a constant track away from the station on 270°T, the aircraft holds a heading of 265°T. Determine the ADF reading (relative bearing).
Correct answer is – 185
Q9. While tracking away from the station on a constant track of 250°T, the aircraft maintains an ADF reading (relative bearing) of 202°. Determine the aircraft heading.
Correct answer is – 228
Q10. The aircraft tracks towards the station on a constant track of 060°T and maintains an ADF reading (relative bearing) of 005°. Determine the aircraft heading.
Correct answer is – 055
Q11. Aircraft HDG 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 (R) is to intercept the 120 (M) track inbound to an NDB at 50 degrees. The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms the interception is
Correct answer is – 050 (R)
Q12. Aircraft HDG 200 (M) has an ADF reading of 160 (R). The HDG to steer to intercept the 150 track outbound from the NDB at 30 degrees is
Correct answer is – 120 (M)
Q13. Aircraft is approaching station on HDG 330 (M) and told to intercept radial 175 outbound at 60 degrees. Which side should aircraft turn and through how many degrees, new HDG to intercept, ADF on intercept?
Correct answer is – Turn: Left by 95 degrees, HDG to intercept: 235 (M), ADF on intercept: 120 (R)
Q14. A/C is on radial 240, HDG 230. CDI showing three dots fly right indication. To/From showing TO. Find: (i) OBS (ii) Type of sensing
Explanation: Aircraft is on radial 240. CDI shows two dots fly right, meaning the selected course is 4 right of the aircraft position ? 240 ? 4 = 236. The inbound course (OBS) is the reciprocal: 236 ? 180 = 056. Aircraft heading 230 is opposite to the selected course, therefore sensing is Reverse.
Q15. Aircraft heading is 080 deg (M). OBS is selected to 060 deg. Aircraft is on a radial of 040 deg (M). To/from indication and CDI will show:
Explanation: Aircraft is on radial 040 ( i.e Outbound = 040, Homebound 220 ), Given OBS is set to 060, so the aircraft is trying to track a course away from the station. The aircraft position (040) is 20 left of the selected course (060), therefore the CDI indicates fly Right 20 Degree and the flag shows FROM.
Q16. An aircraft has tuned a VOR station. When 049 is selected on the OBS, the CDI is centered and the TO indication is displayed. Determine the aircraft radial and the magnetic heading required to reach the station.
Explanation: When OBS is set to 049 and the CDI is centered with a TO indication, the aircraft is on the 049 inbound course to the station. VOR radials are always defined FROM the station, therefore the aircraft must be on the reciprocal radial: 049 + 180 = 229 radial. To fly to the station along the selected course, the aircraft heading required is 049 (Magnetic). Hence the aircraft is on 229 radial and must fly heading 049 (M) in NILL wind Conditions.
Q17. An a/c hdg is 041 (M). At 17.5 nm from a VOR. A/C is on magnetic bearing of 215 from VOR. OBS selection 212. VOR and NDB are co-located. Determine the CDI indication.
Explanation: Aircraft is on radial 215 and OBS is set to 212. The aircraft is therefore 3 right of the selected course. CDI commands correction toward the course, so the indication will be fly left. Since the difference is 3 degrees, the deviation is about 1.5 dots left.
Q18. An RMI shows the bearing of an NDB as 020°. The heading of the aeroplane is 020° (M). In order to intercept an outbound course of 330° (from the NDB) at an angle of 40°, the aeroplanes heading should be referred to:
Correct answer is – 010
Q19. Why do clouds not appear on the secondary radar screens:
Correct answer is – The transmit and receive signals are on different frequencies
Q20. The frequency at which sky waves should least affect reception?
Correct answer is – VLF
Q21. To provide a pilot with the position of the aircraft in the absence of radar, ATC must have at its disposal at least?
Correct answer is – Two VDFs at different locations, able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency
Q22. When conducting a QGH approach responsibility for interpreting the procedure rests with…………………..and on a QDM approach, responsibility rests with…………………..?
Correct answer is – The controller, the pilot
Q23. Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?
Correct answer is – 1575.42 MHz only
Q24. Given: An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°);The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt; TAS on approach is 95 kt. In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft’s heading (M) should be?
Correct answer is – 328°
Q25. The frequency available to non-authorized users of NAVSTAR/GPS is:
Correct answer is – 1575.42 MHz
Q26. The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
Correct answer is – Air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability
Q27. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
Correct answer is – A DME station sited on the flight route
Q28. Which statement about the errors and effects on NDB radio signals is correct?
Correct answer is – The mountain effect is caused by reflections onto steep slopes of mountainous terrain which may cause big errors in the bearing
Q29. What causes the so-called “night effect”?
Correct answer is – A change in the direction of the plane of polarisation due to reflections in the ionosphere
Q30. A conventional VOR:
Correct answer is – has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal
Q31. The period of validity of the navigational database is:
Correct answer is – 28 days
Q32. Before commencing a flight the weather radar should?
Correct answer is – Be kept at stand-by until line-up with the runway
Q33. Other traffic is defined as?
Correct answer is – Traffic not qualifying as proximity or intruder but within the display range and within 2700 ft above or below.
Q34. In order to Tune, Identify and Monitor NONA1A NDB emissions the BFO should be used as follows:
Correct answer is – Tune On ; Identify On ; Monitor On
Q35. Concerning FMC operation, which of the following is true:
Correct answer is – the FMC combines the short-term accuracy of the IRS with the long-term accuracy of the external reference
Q36. If an aircraft GPWS detects an excessive rate of descent with gear and flaps up, the alert and warning will be:
Correct answer is – SINK RATE followed by “WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP”
Q37. An aircraft wishes to track towards a VOR along the 274 radial. If the variation is 10°W what should be set on the OBS?
Correct answer is – 094
Q38. The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of 70°(T) will experience the greatest effect due to quadrantal error if the NDB bears:
Correct answer is – 025°(T)
Q39. Assuming the maximum likely error in VOR to be 5.5°, what is the maximum distance apart that beacons can be situated on the centre line of a UK airway in order that an aircraft can guarantee to remain within the airway boundary?
Correct answer is – 109 NM
Q40. Concerning conventional and Doppler VORs (DVOR), which of the following is correct?
Correct answer is – There is no way of knowing from the instrumentation display which type is being used
Q41. Given: Compass heading 270, Deviation 2W, Variation 30E, Relative bearing of VDF station from the aircraft 316. What is the QDR?
Correct answer is – 044
Q42. Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information?
Correct answer is – PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS
Q43. Which of the following statements concerning FM is correct?
Correct answer is – The frequency of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF
Q44. When a Mode C check is carried out, and assuming the equipment is working without error, the Mode C will report a pressure altitude of 35 064 feet as?
Correct answer is – FL351
Q45. What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL140 could receive information from a VDF facility, which is sited 1050 FT above MSL?
Correct answer is – 193 NM
Q46. The phase of the reference wave is 110° as the phase of the variable wave is 315°. What is the phase difference?
Correct answer is – 155°
Q47. If a DME beacon become saturated by interrogations it?
Correct answer is – Adjusts the gain to reply to the 100 strongest signals
Q48. “Fruiting” is caused by?
Correct answer is – Airplanes at range responding to interrogations from another ATC SSR units
Q49. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving strong 150 Hz signals than 90 Hz signals. The correct actions to be taken to place the aircraft on the centre line and on the glide-path is to fly:
Correct answer is – UP and LEFT
Q50. The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 3° up or 3° down. If the beam width is 3° and the range of cloud is 40 NM use the 1:60 rule to calculate the approximate vertical growth of the cloud (from base to top).
Correct answer is – 12000 feet
Q51. The upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.5° glide slope are:
Correct answer is – 6.125° – 1.575°
Q52. An aeroplane is tracking away from an NDB maintaining track 120 degrees with 12 degrees port drift. The relative bearing indicator (RBI) should indicate a bearing of?
Correct answer is – 168 degrees relative
Q53. In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give most accurate position?
Correct answer is – Rho/Rho
Q54. The OBS on a deviation indicator is set to 330° and gives 3 dots fly right command with FROM indicated. What is the QDM of the aircraft to the station?
Correct answer is – 144
Q55. In general, the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
Correct answer is – Only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and protect equipment
Q56. The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is:
Correct answer is – surface wave
Q57. If an aircraft manoeuvre puts a satellite being used for fixing into the wing shadow then:
Correct answer is – the accuracy will be temporarily downgraded
Q58. In order to resolve the 180° direction ambiguity of a directional LOOP aerial its polar diagram is combined with that of a SENSE aerial to produce a ………… whose signal null ensures the ADF needle moves the shortest distance to indicate the correct …………
Correct answer is – at the aircraft, cardioid, bearing
Q59. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by:
Correct answer is – Colour zones being closest together
Q60. Complete the following statement: Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequency in the (i) ……… band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) ……… revolutions per minute; it is (iii) ……… possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen:
Correct answer is – (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
Q61. The ideal length of a half-wave dipole for a frequency of 75 MHz is:
Correct answer is – 1.9 m
Q62. Low altitude radio altimeters operate on the ……… wavelength?
Correct answer is – centimetric
Q63. If Aircraft is making ILS approach QDM 060 with standard glide 3 degree, the ILS CDI indicates 2 dot fly right, at 8 NM ground Range then the Aircraft is…………
Correct answer is – 0.13 NM left of the track
Q64. When using GNSS to carry out a non-precision approach the MDA will be determined using:
Correct answer is – barometric altitude
Q65. In elevation the upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.0-degree glide slope are:
Correct answer is – 5.25° 1.35°
Q66. Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300000 km/second)
Correct answer is – 333 km
Q67. There are two NDBs, one 80 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft flying over water will be?
Correct answer is – Greater from the beacon that is 80 NM inland
Q68. An aircraft is tracking 060 (T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB is 035° at 1300. 12 min later the relative bearing is 070°. If the GS is 180 kts, what is the aircraft’s distance from the NDB at 1312:
Correct answer is – 36 NM
Q69. The position derived from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites may be subject to the following errors:
Correct answer is – propagation, selective availability, ephemeris
Q70. To improve the resolution of a radar display requires:
Correct answer is – a narrow pulse width and a narrow beamwidth
Q71. An aircraft at FL 300, with a ground speed of 300 kts, is about to pass overhead a DME station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining ground speed. One minute before the overhead, DME speed and distance indication respectively are?
Correct answer is – Less than 300 kts and 7 nm
Q72. An aircraft is passed a true bearing from a VDF station of 353°. If the variation is 8°E and the bearing is classified as “B” then the:
Correct answer is – QTE is 353° ± 5°
Q73. You intercept a QDM with a right crosswind component. Is your intercept heading greater or smaller than it would be without wind influence?
Correct answer is – Greater
Q74. For a conventional DME facility “Beacon Saturation” will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:
Correct answer is – 100
Q75. The stabilization of the weather radar aerial is effective?
Correct answer is – For up to +/- 20 degrees of combined pitch and roll
Q76. The term Doppler shift refers to?
Correct answer is – The change in frequency measured at the receiver
Q77. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
Correct answer is – Within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
Q78. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:
Correct answer is – pulse repetition rate
Q79. The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 50 nm is?
Correct answer is – 1620 pps
Q80. A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
Correct answer is – Increase in area and move to the top of the screen
Q81. The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is:
Correct answer is – N5000.000527.0
Q82. An aircraft’s Instrument Landing System glide slope and localizer receivers are receiving predominant 90 Hz modulated signals. If the aircraft is within the coverage of the ILS, QDM of 264°, it is:
Correct answer is – south of the localizer and above the glide slope
Q83. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires ………… SVs:
Correct answer is – 6
Q84. A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090 degrees through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
Correct answer is – The ADF needle moves, the VOR needle does not
Q85. In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to?
Correct answer is – Accounts for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the reading
Q86. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on a heading of 287°(M) with 14° starboard drift. If the variation is 6°W what is the phase difference between the reference and variable phase components of the VOR transmission?
Correct answer is – 301°
Q87. A primary radar has a pulse repetition frequency of 275 PPS. The time interval between the leading edges of successive pulses is:
Correct answer is – 3.64 milliseconds
Q88. An advantage of a phased array (slotted antenna) is:
Correct answer is – all of the above
Q89. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
Correct answer is – Static interference – night effect – absence of failure warning system
Q90. The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots:
Correct answer is – to read information only
Q91. The correct response to a TCAS RA is?
Correct answer is – Comply with descent/climb commands immediately and smoothly.
Q92. Aircraft position 34 15 N 098 00E, magnetic variation 2° W, FL280, PTV VOR/DME position 36 12 N 098 E, magnetic variation 13° E, In order to read the most accurate ground speed given by the DME receiver from his present position, the pilot must fly on which PTC radial?
Correct answer is – 167 degrees
Q93. At 65 NM from a VOR you commence a descent from FL330 in order to arrive over the VOR at FL80. You mean ground speed in the descent is 240 knots. What rate of descent is required?
Correct answer is – 1540 feet/min
Q94. The outer marker of an ILS installation has a visual identification of:
Correct answer is – continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, blue light
Q95. On a typical computer-generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will be shown?
Correct answer is – Squawk code, flight level, ground speed, airplane callsign
Q96. An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localizer inbound on the approach side but outside the published coverage angle:
Correct answer is – will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals
Q97. How can a DME interrogator distinguish between its own reply pulse-pairs and the reply pulse-pairs of other aircraft in the area, using the same DME station?
Correct answer is – The pulse repetition frequency of the pulse-pairs transmitted by the interrogator varies, for each interrogator there is a unique rhythm
Q98. Given: Runway direction 230° (T), Surface W/V 280° (T)/40 kt. Calculate the effective cross-wind component?
Correct answer is – 31 kt
Q99. Mode A or C garbling may occur to?
Correct answer is – Two or more aircraft in the same direction from the interrogator with a difference in slant range of less than 1.7 nm
Q100. The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of: 1. A specific dedicated screen. 2. A combined screen besides the weather radar. 3. A variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA). 4. An EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen.
Correct answer is – 2, 3 and 4.
Q101. An aircraft, heading 150°, is 100 NM north of a VOR, the pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 030 radial. The pilot should set …… on the OBS and on reaching the 030 radial should turn …… onto a heading of ……, assuming zero wind.
Correct answer is – 210 ; right ; 210
Q102. When flying over the sea and using an inland NDB to fix position with a series of position lines, the plotted position in relation to the aircraft’s actual position will be:
Correct answer is – closer to the coast
Q103. If a radar has a beamwidth of 3 degrees and a pulse length of 4 microseconds, the approximate target azimuth resolution at a range of 60 nm will be:
Correct answer is – 3 nm
Q104. An aircraft is “tracking away” to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of 180°. If the magnetic heading decreases the aircraft is experiencing?
Correct answer is – Right drift
Q105. An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316 degrees from an aircraft. Given: Compass heading 270. Deviation 2W. Variation at the aircraft 30E. Variation at the station 28E. Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft?
Correct answer is – 254 degrees
Q106. The pencil-shaped beam of airborne weather radar is used in preference to “fan” mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
Correct answer is – Beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam
Q107. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
Correct answer is – They are not on the receiver frequency