Q2. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF let-down?
Q3. Which of the following is an advantage of a VDF let-down?
Q4. What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a service to an aircraft at FL080?
Q5. Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding (VDF) is most accurate?
Q6. Given that compass heading is 270°, the deviation is 2°W, the variation is 30°E and the relative bearing of a beacon is 316°. Determine the QDR :
Q7. The VDF term meaning ‘true bearing from the station’ is:
Q8. A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy of:
Q9. An error applicable to VDF would be:
Q10. The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ft AMSL can provide a service to an aircraft at FL350 is:
Q11. The principle of operation of VOR is:
Q12. An NDB transmits a signal pattern which is:
Q13. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is:
Q14. Two NDBs, one 20 NM from the coast and the other 50 NM further inland. Assuming coastal error is the same for each, form which NDB will an aircraft flying over the sea receiver the greatest error?
Q15. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF bearings?
Q16. Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?
Q17. What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF?
Q18. When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low level?
Q19. A radio beacon has a range of 10 NM. By what factor should the power be increased to achieve a range of 20 NM?
Q20. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF?
Q21. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?
Q22. The allocated frequency coverage of NDBs is:
Q23. The emissions from a non-directional beacon (NDB) are:
Q24. How does night effect affect ADF?
Q25. Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by:
Q26. The least accurate bearing information taken by an aircraft over the sea from a NDB will be from:
Q27. The accuracy of ADF may be affected by:
Q28. The ADF error which will cause the needle to ‘hunt’ (i.e. oscillate around the correct bearing) is:
Q29. The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding compass error is:
Q30. A NDB has emission designator NONA1A this will require the use of the BFO for:
Q31. The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL240 is 250 NM from a VOR at 16 ft AMSL which he selects. He receives no signal from the VOR. This is because:
Q32. The phase difference measured at the aircraft from a VOR is 235∘. The bearing of the beacon from the aircraft is:
Q33. A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 147 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS and the CDI indications will be:
Q34. An aircraft is 100 NM SW of a VOR heading 080∘. The pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 210 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS is and the CDI indications will be:
Q35. If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired DME identification is FKZ, then:
Q36. The principle used to measure VOR bearings is:
Q37. When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the……should be used for VOR and at the….for ADF.
Q38. An Aircraft files from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. The variation at the beacon is 13W and the Variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft on ?
Q39. In a conventional VOR the reference signal and the variabe signal have a 30 Hz modulation. The variable signal modulation is produced by:
Q40. If VOR accuracy has a limit is 1.0°,what is the maximum cross-track error at 200 NM?
Q41. What is the Maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same identification?
Q42. What is the Maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the center line of an airway (10 NM wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5°?
Q43. In a certionVORTAC instalation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This means that theDistance between the two beacons is in excess of:
Q44. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 NM from the VOR beacon ?
Q45. The Maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmission from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is ?
Q46. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly:
Q47. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR?
Q48. Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in:
Q49. An aircraft is flying a heading of 090° along the equator, homing to VOR. If Variation at the aircraft is10°E and 15°E at the VOR, what is the Inbound radial?
Q50. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME, the following signals are heard in the morse code every 30 seconds:
Q51. What is the Maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacn at 169 ft can be received by an aircraft at FL012?
Q52. An aircraft tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the105 radial. the setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:
Q53. When tracking the 090 radial outbound from a VOR, the track flown is:
Q54. The frequency band of VOR is:
Q55. On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E (VAR 13°E) is an aircraft at 59N025E (VAR 20°E)?
Q56. What is the Minimum height an aircraft must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196 ft AMSL at a range of 175 NM?
Q57. For a Conventional VOR phase difference of 090° would be achieved by flying … from the beacon:
Q58. At a range of 200 NM from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centre line is the aircraft?
Q59. The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:
Q60. Which of the following provides distance information?
Q61. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?
Q62. On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation. The action you should take is
Q63. The errors of an ILS localizer (LLZ) beam are due to:
Q64. The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is …………… and it illuminates the …………….light in the cockpit.
Q65. The principle of operation of the ILS localizer transmitter is that it transmits two overlapping lobes on:
Q66. ILS glide slope transmitter generates false glide paths because of:
Q67. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
Q68. A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200°. When the aircraft is lined up on the centre line of the ILS localizer for runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
Q69. The Coverage of ILS glide slope with respect to the localizer centre line is:
Q70. The middle marker is usually located at a range of …………….., with an audio frequency of ……………. and illuminates the …………….. light.
Q71. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:
Q72. The Sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when:
Q73. The ILS localizer is normally positioned:
Q74. The audio frequency of the outer marker is:
Q75. An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will be:
Q76. The frequency band of the ILS glide path is:
Q77. In which band does the ILS glide path operate?
Q78. Flying an ILS approach with a 3° glide slope referenced to 50 ft above the threshold, an aircraft at 4.6 NM should be at an approximate height of:
Q79. Flying an ILS approach the equipment senses that the 90 Hz modulation predominates on both the localizer and the glide path. The indications the pilot will see are:
Q80. On an ILS approach, using a 3∘ glide path, the height of an aircraft, ground speed 160 kt, at 3.5 NM from touchdown should be:
Q81. A category II ILS facility is required to provide guidance to:
Q82. When flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway the indications from the ILS on the CDI will be:
Q83. The azimuth coverage of a 3∘ glide path is:
Q84. Coverage of MLS is … either side of centre line to distance of …
Q85. Distance on MLS is measured by:
Q86. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?
Q87. The frequency band of MLS is:
Q88. What are the ground components of MLS?
Q89. The coverage of the approach azimuth and elevation of a MLS is:
Q90. A full MLS system comprises a DME and:
Q91. MLS has 200 channels available in the frequency band: