✈️ Radio Navigation – Revision Set 10 to 19 – LMS

Results

Q1. What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 kHz?

8 m

80 m

800 m

8000 m

Q2. Which wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 5035 MHz?

5.96 mm

5.96 cm

59.6 cm

5.96 m

Q3. What is the maximum PRF that allows detection of targets to a range of 50 km? (ignore any flyback time).

330 pulses per second (pps)

617 pps

3000 pps

1620 pps

Q4. The Doppler effect is:

the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter and receiver

the change in frequency caused by the movement of a receiver

the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter

the change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and receiver

Q5. Primary radar operates on the principle of:

transponder interrogation

pulse technique

phase comparison

continuous wave emission

Q6. The definition of a radar display will be best with:

narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth

narrow beamwidth and wide pulsewidth

wide beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth

wide beamwidth and wide pulsewidth

Q7. The Main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is:

more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy

removes the minimum range restriction

smaller more compact equipment

permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing

Q8. Which of the following systems use pulse technique? Which of the following systems use pulse technique? 1. secondary surveillance radar 2. airborne weather radar 3. distance measuring equipment 4. primary radar

all the above

2 and 4 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

Q9. To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by factor of:

Q10. In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of:

pulse width

beamwidth

pulse recurrence rate

rate of rotation

Q11. The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:

pulse width

peak power

average power

pulse recurrence rate

Q12. What does pulse recurrence rate refer to?

the number of cycles per second

The number of pulses per second

the ratio of pulse width to pulse repetition period

the delay known as flyback or dead time

Q13. The maximum PRF required for a range of 50 NM is:

300 pulses per second (pps)

600 pps

1620 pps

3280 pps

Q14. The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:

a continuous wave primary radar

a pulsed secondary radar

a pulsed primary radar

a continuous wave secondary radar

Q15. Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges?

Millimetric pulse

Continuous wave primary

Centimetric pulse

Continuous wave secondary

Q16. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:

reduces side lobes and directs more energy into the main beam

removes the need for azimuth slaving

side lobe suppression

can produce simultaneous map and weather information

Q17. The Maximum unambiguous range for a PRF of 1200 pps is:

134 NM

180 NM

67 NM

360 NM

Q18. PRF 450 pps. Speed of light 300,000 km/s. Max range?

150 km

333 km

666 km

1326 km

Q19. The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using:

low freq, narrow beam

short wavelength, narrow beam

high freq, wide beam

long wavelength, wide beam

Q20. Which of the following is a primary radar system?

SSR

DME

GPS

AWR

Q21. On what principle does primary ATC radar work?

Pulse technique

Pulse comparison

Continuous wave

Transponder interrogation

Q22. The type of radar which has no minimum range restriction is:

primary CW radar

primary pulsed radar

secondary CW radar

secondary pulsed radar

Q23. The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by:

power

beamwidth

PRF

Q24. The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a target is 925.5 microseconds. The range of the target is:

37.5 NM

75 NM

150 NM

300

Q25. An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar array) over a parabolic reflector are:

side lobes removed

360∘ scan without any rotation requirement

less power required

higher data rate possible

Q26. The best resolution will be achieved on a radar display with:

high power output and large parabolic reflector

narrow beamwidth and narrow pulse width

low frequency and small parabolic reflector

wide beamwidth and large pulsewidth

Q27. A radar transmitting on 600 MHz has a PRF of 300 pps and an aerial rotation rate of 5 rpm. This radar will be:

an area surveillance radar

an aerodrome surface movement radar

an aerodrome surveillance radar

a terminal area radar

Q28. The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect:

snow

moderate rain

dry hail

wet hail

Q29. The frequency of AWR is:

9375 MHz

937.5 MHz

93.75 GHz

9375 GHz

Q30. The use of the AWR on the ground is:

not permitted

permitted provided reduced power is used

permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and equipment

only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions

Q31. Which type of cloud does the AWR detect?

Cirrocumulus

Altostratus

Cumulus

Stratus

Q32. The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the …………… mode.

WEA

CONT

MAP

MAN

Q33. On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown:

in flashing red

by a black hole

by a steep colour gradient

alternating red and white

Q34. On an AWR colour display, the sequence of colours indicating increasing water droplet size is:

blue, green, red

green, yellow, red

black, amber, red

blue, amber, green

Q35. In an AWR with a 5° beamwidth, how do you orientate the scanner to receive returns from clouds at or above your level?

0° tilt

2.5° uptilt

2.5° downtilt

5° uptilt

Q36. The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the AWR:

to allow ground mapping

to alert pilots to the presence of cloud

to display areas of turbulence in cloud

to allow simultaneous mapping and cloud detection

Q37. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:

the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector

the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength

the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency

the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

Q38. In an AWR with a colour CRT, areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by:

iso-echo areas coloured black

large areas of flashing red

iso-echo areas with no colour

most rapid change of colour

Q39. As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will change:

black, yellow, amber

green, yellow, red

blue, green, orange

green, yellow, amber

Q40. The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:

a greater range can be achieved

a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage

a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam

it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping

Q41. The AWR can be used on the ground provided: 1. the aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles 2. conical beam is selected 3. maximum uptilt is selected 4. the AWR must never be operated on the ground

1 and 3

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3

Q42. Doppler navigation systems use …………… to determine the aircraft ground speed and drift.

DVOR

phase comparison of signals from ground stations

frequency shift in signals reflected from the ground

DME range measurement

Q43. Which axes is the AWR stabilized in?

Pitch, roll and yaw

Roll and yaw

Pitch and roll

Pitch only

Q44. The AWR operating frequency is:

9375 MHz

9375 GHz

937.5 MHz

93.75 GHz

Q45. The AWR frequency is selected because it gives:

good returns from water droplets

good returns from turbulence

good penetration of cloud

good returns from water vapour

Q46. On a colour AWR display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:

amber

red

yellow

blue

Q47. With normal SSR mode C altitude coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to 12 pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with:

4096 codes in 4 blocks

2048 codes in 3 blocks

4096 codes in 3 blocks

2048 codes in 4 blocks

Q48. Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?

The frequency is too high

SSR does not use the echo principle

The PRF is jittered

By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns

Q49. The advantages of SSR mode S are:

improved resolution, TCAS

data link, reduced voice communications

TCAS, no RT communications

better resolution, selective interrogation

Q50. The accuracy of SSR mode C altitude as displayed to the air traffic controller is:

+/-25 ft

+/-50 ft

+/-75 ft

+/-100 ft

Q51. The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on ……………. and receives responses on …………….

1030 MHz 1030 MHz

1030 MHz 1090 MHz

1090 MHz 1030 MHz

1090 MHz 1090 MHz

Q52. The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to:

QNH unless QFE is in use

1013.25 hPa

QNH

WGS84 datum

Q53. Why is a secondary radar display free from weather clutter?

The frequencies are too low to detect water droplets

The frequencies are too high to detect water droplets

Moving target indication is used to suppress the static generated by water droplets

The principle of the return of echoes is not used

Q54. The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:

all

Q55. With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude failure?

9999

4096

7600

Q56. The SSR code to select when the aircraft is being unlawfully interfered with is:

7600

7700

7500

7400

Q57. In SSR the ground station interrogates the aircraft…… on MHz and receives replies from the aircraft on……… MHz

1030 1090

1090 1030

1030 1030

1090 1090

Q58. The altitude read-out at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft altitude within:

300 ft

100 ft

500 ft

50 ft

Q59. What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on?

It stays in the search mode, but Reduces to 60 pulse pairs per second after 100 seconds.

It stays in the search mode, but Reduces to 60 ppps after 15 000 pulse pairs.

It Stays in the search mode at 150 ppps.

It Alternates between search and memory modes every 10 seconds

Q60. The Most accurate measurement of speed by DME for aircraft at 30,000 ft will be when the aircraft is :

tracking towards the beacon at 10 NM

overhead the beacon

tracking away from the beacon at 100 NM

passing abeam the beacon at 5 NM

Q61. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about … aircraft are interrogating the transonder.

100

200

Q62. A typical DME frequency is:

1000 MHz

1300 MHz

1000 kHz

1575 MHz

Q63. The DME in an Aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock-on DME at MSL at a range of 210 NM. The Reason for this is:

The beacon is saturated

The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME

The aircraft is beyond line-of-sight range

The aircraft is signal too weak at that rang to trigger a response

Q64. The Aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to own transmissions but rejects replies to other aircraft transmissions because:

the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft

the pulse pair from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation

The interrogation frequencies 63 MHz different for each aircraft

The interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz

Q65. When an Aircraft at FL360 directly above DME , at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:

6 NM

9 NM

12 NM

Q66. A DME frequency could be:

10 MHz

100 MHz

1000 MHz

10 000 MHz

Q67. An Aircraft at FL360 is 10 NM plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be:

8 NM

11.7 NM

10 NM

13.6 NM

Q68. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:

the PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered

It uses MTI

the interrogation and reply frequencies differ

the reflections will all fall within flyback period

Q69. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?

Magnetic bearing

DME

Nothing

DME and magnetic bearing

Q70. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 NM from beacon at elevation of 167 ft. The Plan range is:

13.5 NM

16.5 NM

15 NM

17.6 NM

Q71. What are the DME frequencies?

1030 & 1090 MHz

1030 – 1090 MHz

960 & 1215 MHz

960 – 1215 MHz

Q72. The Time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of reply form the DME ground station is 2000 microseconds. ( ignore the delay at the DME ). The Slant range is:

330 NM

185 NM

165 NM

370 NM

Q73. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:

The DME is unserviceable.

The DME is trying to lock onto range.

The DME is trying to lock onto frequency.

The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

Q74. On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This indicates:

The DME is in the search mode.

The DME is unserviceable.

The DME receiving no response from the transponder

The Transponder is unserviceable.

Q75. An aircraft at FL200 is 220 NM from a DME at MSL. The aircraft equipment fails to lock on to the DME. This is because:

DME is limited to 200 NM.

the aircraft is too high to receive the signal

the aircraft is too low to receive the signal

The beacon is saturated.

Q76. A typical frequency for DME would be:

300 MHz

600 MHz

900 MHz

1200 MHz

Q77. If the aircraft DME interrogates a ground transponder on a frequency of 1199 MHz, it will look for replies on:

1262 MHz

1030 MHz

1090 MHz

1136 MHz

Q78. A DME recognizes replies to its own interrogating pulses because:

each pulse pair has its own unique modulation which is replicated by the transponder

the PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered

each aircraft has a different time interval within the pulses pairs which is replicated by the transponder

the transponder uses a selective reply system to respond to the aircraft interrogation pulses

Q79. The DME in an aircraft at FL630 measures a slant range of 16 NM from a ground station at 1225 ft AMSL. The plan range is:

12.5 NM

19 NM

16 NM

10.5 NM

Q80. In an RNAV approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation from track would represent:

5 NM

0.5 NM.

5°.

0.5°

Q81. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is:

0.25 NM standard deviation or better

0.5 NM standard deviation or better

1 NM standard deviation or better

1.5 NM standard deviation or better

Q82. The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:

when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated Mach No. equals the actual Mach No.

if the ground speed and position are accurate

if the forecast W/V at take-off is entered

if the ground speed is correct and the take-off time has been entered

Q83. When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?

TOD

TOC

Just after take-off

On final approach

Q84. For position fixing the B737-800 FMC uses:

DME/DME

VOR/DME

DME/DME or VOR/DME

any combination of VOR, DME and ADF

Q85. When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents approximately:

2°

5°

5 NM

2 NM

Q86. An aircraft, using a 2D RNAV computer, is 12 NM from the phantom station, 25 NM from the VOR/DME designating the phantom station and the phantom station is 35 NM from the VOR/DME. The range read-out in the aircraft will be:

12 NM

25 NM plan range

35 NM

25 NM slant range

Q87. The FMC position is:

the average of the IRS positions

the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions

computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions

computer generated from the radio navigation positions

Q88. When midway between two waypoints, how can the pilot best check the progress of the aircraft?

By using the ATD at the previous waypoint

By using the computed ETA for the next waypoint

By using the ATA at the previous waypoint

By using the ETA at the destination

Q89. Which of the following can be input manually to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?

Waypoints, latitude and longitude, SIDs and STARS

ICAO aerodrome designators, navigation facilities, SIDs and STARS

Waypoints, airways designators, latitude and longitude

Navigation facilities, reporting points, airways designators

Q90. The inputs to the EHSI display during automatic flight include:

auto-throttle, IRS and FMC

FCC, FMC and ADC

IRS, FMC and radio navigation facilities

IRS, ADC and FCC

Q91. The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialization will include:

ETD, aircraft position, and planned route

planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway

navigation data base, aircraft position and departure aerodrome

departure runway, planned route and ETD

Q92. In RNAV mode one dot on the EHSI represents:

2 NM

2°

5 NM

5°

Q93. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:

VOR/DME

twin VOR

twin DME

any of the above

Q94. The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded:

because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the programmed facilities

because the computer cannot determine if the heading and altitude input are in error

because the pilot cannot verify the correct frequency has been selected

if the selected navigation facility is in excess of about 70 NM

Q95. The navigation database in the FMS:

may be modified by the pilot to meet routing requirements

is read only

may be modified by the operations staff to meet routing requirements

may be modified by national aviation authorities to meet national requirements

Q96. In an EHSI the navigation information comes from:

INS, weather mapping, radio navigation

FMC, radio navigation

IRS, radio navigation, TAS and drift

FMC, weather mapping, radio navigation

Q97. On an EFIS display the pictured symbol represents:

DME

VOR/DME

VORTAC

aerodrome

Q98. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is:

one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self-contained on-board systems or a combination of the two

one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids only

one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the specified limits of self-contained on-board systems

Q99. Which of the following is independent of external inputs?

INS

Direct reading magnetic compass

VOR/DME

ADF

Q100. The track line on an EFIS display indicates:

that a manual track has been selected

that a manual heading has been selected

the actual aircraft track over the ground, which will coincide with the aircraft heading when there is zero drift

the aircraft actual track which will coincide with the planned track when there is zero drift

Q101. The EHSI is showing 5° fly right with a TO indication. The aircraft heading is 280°(M) and the required track is 270°. The radial is:

275

265

Q102. On the B737-400 EHSI what happens if the selected VOR fails?

The display blanks and a fail warning appears

The deviation bar is removed

A fail flag is displayed alongside the display bar

The display flashes

Q103. In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate position?

GPS/rho

Rho/theta

Rho/rho

GPS/theta

Q104. If the signal from a VOR is lost, how is this shown on the B737-400 EHSI display?

By removal of the deviation bar and pointer

By showing a fail flag alongside the deviation bar

A flashing red FAIL message appears in the frequency location

An amber FAIL message appears in the frequency location

Q105. The colour used on the B737-400 EHSI weather display to show turbulence is:

magenta

flashing red

white or magenta

high colour gradient

Q106. The cause of a RNAV giving erratic readings would be:

the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station

the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the phantom station

the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the reference station

the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference station

Q107. The accuracy required of a basic area navigation (B-RNAV) system is:

+/-5 NM on 90% of occasions

all the time

+/-5 NM on 95% of occasions

+/-5 NM on 75% of occasions

Q108. What function does the course line computer perform?

Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft to the facility

Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft along a specified track

Converts VOR/DME information into HSI directions to maintain the planned track

Uses VOR/DME information to determine track and distance to a waypoint

Q109. What is an ADC input to the FMC?

Heading

VOR/DME position

TAS

Ground speed and drift

Q110. The indications from a basic RNAV are behaving erratically. The reason is likely to be:

the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station

the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference VOR/DME

the aircraft is below line of sight range of the reference VOR/DME

the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the reference VOR

Q111. In a RNAV system the DME is tuned:

by what is selected on the pilots DME and hence is tuned manually

automatically by taking pilot's DME selection

by selecting DMEs to give suitable angle of cut to get a fix automatically

by automatically selecting the nearest suitable DME

Q112. Which input to the FMC is taken from sources external to the aircraft?

INS

Pressure altitude

Magnetic heading from a direct reading compass

VOR/DME

Q113. For the FMC the take-off speeds, V1, VR and V2 are found:

in the operating manual and input to the FMC

in the performance database

in the checklist and input manually

in the navigation database

Q114. The optimum climb and descent speeds used by the FMC are found:

in the operating manual and input to the FMC

in the performance database

in the checklist and input manually

in the navigation database

Q115. The optimum cruise speeds used by the FMC are found:

in the operating manual and input to the FMC

in the performance database

in the checklist and input manually

in the navigation database

Q116. Which of the following external inputs is required by the FMC to determine W/V?

Magnetic heading

Mach No.

TAS

Track and ground speed

Q117. Which of the following is true concerning the use of GNSS position in the FMC?

It is used to verify and update the IRS position

An alternate source of position must be used and displayed

GNSS position is usable stand alone

GNSS data may only be used in the absence of other positional information

Q118. A 2D RNAV system takes fixing inputs from:

co-located VOR/DME

twin DME

VOR and/or DME

any of the above

Q119. The accuracy required of a basic RNAV system is:

5 NM

5∘

1 NM

1∘

Q120. An aircraft using a 2D RNAV system is 23 NM from the waypoint on a 50 NM leg. The waypoint is 45 NM from the VOR/DME and the aircraft is 37 NM from the VOR/DME. The range indicated to the pilot will be:

23 NM

27 NM

37 NM

45 NM

Q121. The navigation database in an FMC:

can be modified by the flight crew to meet the route requirements

can be modified every 28 days

can only be read by the flight crew

cannot be accessed by the flight crew

Q122. The RNAV function of the FMC produces a position which:

combines the short term accuracy of the external reference with the long term accuracy of the IRS

produces a long term accuracy from the short term accuracy of the external reference and the IRS

produces a long term accuracy from the long term accuracy of the external reference and the IRS

combines the long term accuracy of the external reference with the short term accuracy of the IRS

Q123. The most accurate external reference position will be provided by:

VOR/DME

Twin DME

Twin VOR

Suitable combination of VOR and DME

Q124. The FMC position is:

the selected IRS position updated by external reference using Kalman filtering

derived from IRS and external reference positions using the Kalman filtering process

derived from external reference position and monitored against the IRS position using the Kalman filtering process

the external reference position updated by IRS information through the Kalman filtering process

Q125. The FMS database can be:

altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates

read and altered by the pilots

only read by the pilots

altered by the pilots every 28 days

Q126. Refer to Appendix A diagram C. What is the current drift? ( visual Q )

4° left

12° left

4° right

12° right

Q127. In the B737-400 EFIS which component generates the visual display?

Flight control computer (FCC)

FMC

Symbol generator

Navigation database

Q128. When is the IRS position updated?

Continuously by the FMC

At VOR beacons on route by the pilots

At significant waypoints only

On the ground only

Q129. Refer to Appendix A. Which diagram is the MAP mode? (visual Q.)

Q130. Refer to diagram E of Appendix A. The track from ZAPPO to BURDY is: (visual Q.)

205°(T)

205°(M)

064°(T)

064°(M)

Q131. Refer to diagram B of Appendix A. The aircraft is: (visual Q.)

right of the centre line and above the glide path

left of the centre line and below the glide path

right of the centre line and below the glide path

left of the centre line and above the glide path

Q132. Refer to Appendix A. Diagram F represents: (visual Q.)

MAP

EXP VOR

VOR

ILS

Q133. Refer to diagram D of Appendix A. The current aircraft track is: (visual Q.)

130°

133°

156°

165°

Q134. Refer to appendix A diagram C. The wind velocity is:

129°(M)/20 ms-1

129°(T)/20 kt

129°(M)/20 kt

129°(T)/20 ms-1

Q135. In order that a waypoint designated by a VOR can be used by a RNAV system:

the VOR must be identified by the pilot

the VOR must be within range when the waypoint is input

the VOR need not be in range when input or used

the VOR need not be in range when input but must be when used

Q136. Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information?

FULL VOR/ILS and MAP

PLAN, MAP and EXP VOR/ILS

MAP and PLAN

PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS

Q137. Refer to appendix A, diagram C. The symbol annotated KXYZ is: (visual Q.)

destination aerodrome

a diversion aerodrome

an en route aerodrome

a top of climb/descent point

Q138. Refer to Appendix B. The distance displayed on the EHSI will be: (visual Q.)

10 NM

11 NM

12 NM

21 NM

Q139. Refer to Appendix A. Which diagram shows the MAP display?

Q140. Refer to Appendix A, diagram E. What is the track from BANTU to ZAPPO? (visual Q.)

360∘(M)

130∘(M)

360∘(T)

130∘(T)

Q141. Refer to Appendix A, diagram A. What is the deviation from the required track? (visual Q.)

3 NM left

3 NM right

8∘ left

8∘ right

Q142. Refer to appendix A, diagram F. What is the required track? (visual Q.)

165∘

173∘

157∘

130∘

Q143. Refer to Appendix A, diagram C. What is the symbol designated DFC which is coloured cyan? (visual Q.)

an in-use VORTAC

an available VORTAC

an in-use NDB

an available NDB

Q144. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors

determine satellite range

eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors

remove receiver clock error

Q145. The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:

barometric altitude

radio altimeter

GPS altitude

GPS or barometric altitude

Q146. If, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the wing, the effect on position will be:

none

the position will degrade

another satellite will be selected, so there will be no degradation of position

the GPS will maintain lock using reflections of the signals from the fuselage

Q147. The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for the NAVSTAR/GPS is:

12.5 minutes

12 hours

30 seconds

15 minutes

Q148. The effect of the ionosphere on NAVSTAR/GPS accuracy is:

only significant for satellites close to the horizon

minimized by averaging the signals

minimized by the receivers using a model of the ionosphere to correct the signals

negligible

Q149. The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:

above mean sea level

above ground level

above the WGS84 ellipsoid

pressure altitude

Q150. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

24 satellites in 6 orbits

24 satellites in 4 orbits

24 satellites in 3 orbits

24 satellites in 8 orbits

Q151. Selective availability may be used to degrade the accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS position. This is achieved by:

introducing an offset in the satellites clocks

random dithering of the broadcast satellites clock time

random dithering of the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z coordinates

introducing an offset in the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z coordinates

Q152. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:

in the fin

on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver

on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity

under the fuselage

Q153. The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:

provides X, Y & Z coordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite data

provides X, Y, Z & T coordinates and the constellation data

monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time

provides geographic position and UTC

Q154. Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?

The inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 12 hours

The inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 24 hours

The orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage

The orbits are inclined at 65° with an orbital period of 11 hours 15 minutes

Q155. NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:

regular auto-synchronization with the satellite clocks

adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error

synchronization with the satellite clocks on initialization

having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver

Q156. The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVS include:

satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information

satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error

position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error

ionospheric propagation information, X, Y & Z coordinates and corrections, satellite clock time and error

Q157. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:

space, control, user

space, control, ground

space, control, air

space, ground, air

Q158. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:

multiplex

multi-channel

sequential

fast multiplex

Q159. The orbital height of geostationary satellites is:

19330 km

35 800 km

10898 NM

10313 NM

Q160. The best accuracy from satellite systems will be provided by:

NAVSTAR/GPS and TNSS transit

GLONASS and COSPAS/SARSAT

GLONASS and TNSS transit

NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

Q161. The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:

determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver

determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data

transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac

determined by the receiver from the broadcast satellite X, Y, Z & T data

Q162. The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:

is done prior to each fix

is done when the receiver position is in error

involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining which satellites are in view

is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite data

Q163. An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. If the receiver deselects one satellite then the flight should be continued:

using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output

using alternative navigation systems

using alternative radio navigation systems only

using inertial reference systems only

Q164. The WGS84 model of the earth is:

a geoid

a sphere

an exact model of the earth

an ellipse

Q165. The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:

VHF

UHF

EHF

SHF

Q166. The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is:

Q167. How many satellites are needed for a 2D fix?

Q168. Which of the following statements concerning ionospheric propagation errors is true?

They are significantly reduced by the use of RAIM

They are eliminated using differential techniques

They are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available

Transmitting the state of the ionosphere to the receivers enables the error to reduced to less than one metre

Q169. Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:

barometric

GNSS

radio

radio or GNSS

Q170. The number of satellites required to provide a 3D fix without RAIM is:

Q171. The number of satellites required for a fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS is:

Q172. Unauthorized’ civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access:

the P and Y codes

the P code

the C/A and P codes

the C/A code

Q173. When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used?

Barometric

GPS height

Radio altitude

Average of barometric and GPS

Q174. The nav/system message from GLONASS and NAVSTAR/GPS is found in the …………… band.

SHF

UHF

VHF

EHF

Q175. Which GNSS system can be used for IFR flights in Europe?

NAVSTAR/GPS

GLONASS

COSPAS/SARSAT

TNSS transit

Q176. During flight using NAVSTAR/GPS and conventional navigation systems, you see a large error between the positions given by the systems. The action you should take is:

continue the flight in VMC

continue using the conventional systems

continue using the GPS

switch off the faulty system after determining which one is in error

Q177. What information can a GPS fix using four satellites give you?

Latitude and longitude

Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

Latitude, longitude and altitude

Latitude, longitude and time

Q178. What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? 1. offset of the satellite clock from GMT 2. ephemeris data 3. health data 4. ionospheric delays 5. solar activity

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 4

2, 3 and 4

Q179. What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

To control the use of the satellites by unauthorized users

To monitor the satellites in orbit

To maintain the satellites in orbit

Degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorized users

Q180. In GNSS a fix is obtained by:

measuring the time taken for signals from a minimum number of satellites to reach the aircraft

measuring the time taken for the aircraft transmissions to travel to a number of satellites in known positions and return to the aircraft

measuring the pulse lengths of the sequential signals from a number of satellites in known positions

measuring the phase angle of the signals from a number of satellites in known positions

Q181. The inclination of a satellite is:

the angle between the SV orbit and the equator

the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the equator

90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

Q182. How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV and the receiver determined?

By referencing the SV and receiver positions to WGS84

By synchronizing the receiver clock with the SV clock

By measuring the time from transmission to reception and multiplying by the speed of light

By measuring the time from transmission to reception and dividing by the speed of light

Q183. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range because:

it is measured using pseudo-random codes

it includes receiver clock error

satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other

it is measured against idealized Keplerian orbits

Q184. The task of the control segment is to:

determine availability to users

monitor the SV ephemeris and clock

apply selective availability

all of the above

Q185. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires …………… SVs:

Q186. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

differentiate between satellites

pass satellite ephemeris information

pass satellite time and ephemeris information

pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information

Q187. An ‘all in view’ satellite navigation receiver is one which:

monitors all 24 satellites

tracks selected satellites

selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four

tracks the closest satellites

Q188. Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?

1227.6 MHz only

1575.42 MHz only

1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz

1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz

Q189. Which GNSS is authorized for use on European airways?

GLONASS

NAVSTAR/GPS

Galileo

COSPAS/SARSAT

Q190. In GPS on which frequencies are both the C/A and P codes transmitted?

Both frequencies

The higher frequency

Neither frequency

The lower frequency

Q191. The orbits of the NAVSTAR GPS satellites are inclined at:

55° to the earth's axis

55° to the plane of the equator

99° to the earth's axis

99° to the plane of the equator

Q192. RAIM is achieved:

by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which are relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites

by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the corrections to receivers using pseudolites

within the receiver

any of the above

Q193. The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:

interrogate the satellites to determine range

track the satellites to calculate time

track the satellites to calculate range

determine position and assess the accuracy of that position

Q194. In which frequency band are the L1 and L2 frequencies of GNSS?

SHF

VHF

UHF

EHF

Q195. Which of the following statements concerning differential GPS (DGPS) is true?

Local area DGPS gives the same improvement in accuracy regardless of distance from the station

DGPS removes SV ephemeris and clock errors and propagation errors

DGPS can improve the accuracy of SA affected position information

Wide area DGPS accuracy improves the closer the aircraft is to a ground station

Q196. The visibility of GPS satellites is:

dependent on the location of the user

greatest at the equator

greatest at the poles

the same at all points on and close to the surface of the earth

Q197. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

6 SVs each in 4 orbits

4 SVs each in 6 orbits

8 SVs each in 3 orbits

3 SVs each in 8 orbits

Q198. Comparing the L1 and L2 signals helps with the reduction of which GNSS error?

Tropospheric propagation

SV ephemeris

SV clock

Ionospheric propagation

Q199. The normal maximum range for an ATC surveillance radar is:

50 NM

150 NM

250 NM

350 NM

Q200. The height of the GPS constellation is:

19 300 km

20 200 km

10900 km

35 800 km

Q201. When flying under IFR using GPS and a multi-sensor system:

if there is a discrepancy between the GPS and multi-sensor positions, then the multi-sensor position must be regarded as suspect

the GPS must be operating and its information displayed

the multi-sensor system must be operating and its information displayed

both systems must be operating but only the primary system information needs to be displayed

Q202. In NAVSTAR/GPS the space segment:

provides the positional information to the receiver

the receiver interrogates the satellite and the satellite provides positional information

sends information for receiver to determine latitude, longitude and time

relays positional data from the control segment

Q203. The almanac in the receiver:

determines selective availability

assigns the PRN codes to the satellites

is used to determine receiver clock error

is used to determine which satellites are above the horizon

Q204. In NAVSTAR/GPS range measurement is achieved by measuring:

the time difference between the minimum number of satellites

the time taken for the signal to travel from the satellite to the receiver

the synchronization of the satellite and receiver clocks

the time taken for a signal to travel from the receiver to the satellite and return to the receiver

Q205. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises:

21 satellites in 6 orbits

24 satellites in 6 orbits

24 satellites in 3 orbits

30 satellites in 6 orbits

Q206. The model of the earth used for GPS is:

WGS90

PZ84

PZ90

WGS84

Q207. The major limitation in the use of GPS for precision approaches using wide area augmentation systems (WAAS) is:

lack of failure warning

the height difference between the ellipsoid and the earth

global coverage of WAAS is not available

degradation of range measurement because of ionospheric propagation errors

Q208. The number of SVs required to produce a 3D fix is:

Q209. EGNOS provides a WAAS by determining the errors in……. and broadcasting these errors to receivers using……

X, Y & Z coordinates geostationary satellites

X, Y & Z coordinates pseudolites

SV range geostationary satellites

SV range pseudolites

Q210. The principle error in GNSS is:

ionospheric propagation

GDOP

receiver clock error

SV ephemeris error

Q211. If the signal from an SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre:

the receiver will select another SV with no loss in accuracy

the receiver will go into a DR mode with no loss of accuracy

the receiver will compensate by using the last calculated altitude to maintain positional accuracy

the receiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken

Q212. The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

identify the satellites

synchronize the receiver clocks with the SV clocks

pass navigation and system data to the receiver

all of the above

Q213. If the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the constellation. This download will take:

15 minutes

2.5 minutes

12.5 minutes

25 minutes

Q214. The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of SVs.

Q215. The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is:

in the cockpit as close as possible to the receiver

on the fuselage close to the centre of gravity

on the aircraft as far as possible from other aerials to reduce reflections

close to each wing tip to compensate for manoeuvre errors

Q216. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at to…. the equator with an orbital period of…….

55∘ 11 h 15 min

65∘ 11 h 15 min

65∘ 12 h

55∘ 12 h

Q217. The NAVSTAR/GPS frequency available to non-authorized users is:

1227.6 MHz

1575.42 MHz

1215.0 MHz

1090.0 MHz

Q218. The NAV and system data message is contained in the…….signal.

50 Hz

C/A PRN code

P PRN code

C/A & P PRN code

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